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Is Pologamy A Sin

Is pologamy a sin.

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I am not sure if someone already sited these passages from the bible but I felt a need to site it. I do not believe God intended for us to have more then one wife/husband this is why I am confused at why many of the leaders of the tribes of israel did. Maybe someone can help me.
---Stephanie on 6/1/09


Flo said, "The Bible states that marriage is between one woman and one man. It's very clear."

Could you provide any Scripture references to support this "clear" claim? Scripture confirms that marriage is between "A" man and "A" woman. The very definition of adultery (na'aph) prohibits a woman from having multiple husbands, but nothing in Scripture prohibits a man from having multiple wives. It's like arguing that God intended a man to only have one child.
---righteouswarriors on 12/18/07


Yes it is a sin. The Bible states that marriage is between one woman and one man. It's very clear.
---Flo on 12/18/07


The Greek word "epithumeo" can either mean to desire something which is lawful to have, or it can mean to covet/lust after something which is not lawful to have. The distinction is desiring something without regard for the rights of others. So if I "epithumeo" for another man's property (ie. another man's wife), then I am coveting/lusting. One can only covet that which belongs to another person (ie. another man's wife), precisely because it is unlawful to have for oneself.
---righteouswarriors on 12/17/07


Christina said, "I have no doubt whatsoever that most have lustedin their heart prior to marrying the 2nd woman, therefore it is clearly adultery."

You may have no doubt, but your logic is flawed. The verse actually says:

Matt. 5:27-28: "You heard that it was said to those of old, 'You shall not commit adultery.' But I say to you that everyone looking at a [gune] to [epithumeo] for her has already committed [na'aph] with her in his heart."
---righteouswarriors on 12/17/07




Christina,

You should look up the Greek word "gune" in a concordance to find that it means a woman, SPECIFICALLY A WIFE (Strong's #1135). Also check the meaning of "epithumeo" (coveting) and determine for yourself if a person can covet something that is lawful to have, or only covet something that is UNLAWFUL to have. Now carefully reread Jesus' words in Matt. 5:27-28 and see what makes sense, especially in light of the Biblical definition of adultery.
---righteouswarriors on 12/17/07


donald,

Your references to Gen 2:24 and Matt. 19:4-5 are concerning the sexual aspect of marriage and have nothing to do with monogyny or polygyny. The pattern is that husband and wife become one flesh in sexual intercourse. These words were written by Moses, who not only recorded Genesis but who was expected to conform to Elohim's highest standard, did not see a contradiction between polygyny and the "one flesh" reference of Eden. In fact, Moses himself had two wives.
---righteouswarriors on 12/17/07


Shirley, Mormons don't consider Joseph Smith the equal of Jesus.

They consider him the equal of JEREMIAH, ISAIAH, and the other PROPHETS!

And they are Christian. They believe in Christ. That's all that's necessary to be Christian.
---Nancy on 12/16/07


Pologamy-is a form of adultry or fornacation,its all a sin thats why we have so many deseases today.wake up peaple you may get more than a wife or hushand the next time around.
---judy on 12/16/07


Gen.2:24,"Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother,and shall cleave unto his WIFE:and they shall be one flesh."This is the original plan in the Bible.And for "NT" types of folks,Jesus said in Matt.19:4,5."Have ye not read,that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,and said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his WIFE.... singular.
---donald on 12/15/07




Jesus clearly stated: Matthew 5:28
But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.
When a man is married to 1 woman, and chooses another, I have no doubt whatsoever that most have lustedin their heart prior to marrying the 2nd woman, therefore it is clearly adultery.
---Christina on 12/15/07


Excellent points, Shirley, thank you dear :)
---Mary on 12/14/07


It is not recorded in the bible that having more than one wife is a sin.But the world have made it so.Only those that are rich
and could afford more than one wife had that option.It shall come to pass that
under the mark of the beast there will be legal ways of that union.
---Jack_8773 on 12/14/07


But, it is still better to have more wives than to keep mistress. He does not commited adultery.

Now women will go, all the way to get their men, it does not matter if he is a married man or not. The winner get to keep the man!
---Sheila on 12/14/07


In the ancient times women were pretty helpless.After Adam and Eve sinned and were expelled from the garden.We don't need to populate the entire Earth at this point.As a matter of fact we're over populated.It is not part of Christian culture to have more than one wife.Some Mormons do but they aren't really Christians since they follow Joseph Smith's teachings and make him equal with Christ.
---shirley on 12/14/07


brian3745 said, "God's original plan was One man one woman."

Actually, if you carefully check Scripture, you'll find it says no such thing. God's plan was the PERMANENCE of marriage, not the monogyny of marriage. A man is entitled to no wives, one wife, or multiple wives, whichever he chooses for himself. The idea of a man having only one wife is a cultural issue but it certainly is not a Biblical one. Patriarchy, by definition, required the ability for multiple wives.
---righteouswarriors on 12/14/07


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However why debate the fact that this was a way of life way back then and relate it to western society when it is not acceptable in the Church of God today. Other societies cannot be the rule of faith because they are in Error of the gospel.

No having more than One wife/Husband is Fornication/Adultery (plain and simple) In the beginning God said go forth and multiply the vision was accompished.
---Carla5754 on 12/14/07


"What we have to realise is just because people in the old testament used to be.It wasnt God's original plan.God's original plan was One man one woman."

You mean God has made a mistake with His words? BTW, Jesus was give OT, not like the many bibles of today's generation.
---Sheila on 12/14/07


NOTE: certain KINGS had many wives/concubines, well at least men of great positions and could look after them as only rich men can, and most men with Loads of money have plenty of women, if you were poor you'd stand for the same bargin since you'd be a nobody and have nothing if you didn't, the bible clealy states not all things were written, not inciting another gospel just reality! This was obviously a way of life way back then and for many women today that don't mind sharing as long as their fed.
---Carla5754 on 12/14/07


Brian 3745,
That is true.
That is also where grace come in.
The same grace that covers all transgressions of the law such as divers materials and such.
That is why only Bishops and Deacons are only allowed 1 wife.
Jesus said to divorce a woman for any reason other than adultery makes her an adultress.
An Islamic convert divorcing 3 to keep 1 makes 3 adultresses.
As a post-marriage convert and saint he can keep all 4.
But, he cannot be a minister with all 4.
Frank
---Frank on 12/14/07


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What we have to realise is just because people in the old testament used to be.It wasnt God's original plan.God's original plan was One man one woman. You can read in Genesis and through thru Bible to find that.
---brian3745 on 12/14/07


some of the verses from the Old Testament that allow polygamy, did not say it is a sin:

In Exodus 21:10, a man can marry an infinite amount of women without any limits to how many he can marry.

In 2 Samuel 5:13, 1 Chronicles 3:1-9, 14:3, King David had six wives and numerous concubines.

In 1 Kings 11:3, King Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines.

In 2 Chronicles 11:21, King Solomon's son Rehoboam had 18 wives and 60 concubines
---Sheila on 12/13/07


We have been taught to believe that men and women are the same thing and that God's proclamations in Genesis are unfair, discriminatory and sexist. So feminism replaces patriarchy, secular-defined marriage replaces Biblical-defined marriage, gender-neuter adultery replaces gender-specific adultery...all in an attempt to level the playing field, as if men and women were identical. Men and women are equal in value, but NOT in roles. No wonder the divorce rates in the church are the same as in the world!
---righteouswarriors on 11/16/07


splaa6685 said, "Yes, under the new covenent that was made through Jesus, multiple marraiges is adultry."

StrongAxe said, "Can you cite a particular scripture to support this?"

There isn't one. Jesus did not redefine marriage nor did He redefine adultery. Adultery always involved a MARRIED woman. Biblical marriage always has been between one man and one or more women of the covenant. An unbiased study of all OT and NT Scriptures clearly reveals this.

David
---David on 11/14/07


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Lori said, "funny. both protestants and catholics talk out of both sides of their mouths."

Only because we all come to Scripture with our own preconceived ideas (or ideas given to us by others). There was never any negative connotation of a man having multiple wives in Scripture, but most of us have been taught that there just MUST have been something wrong with it, even though Scripture says no such thing. Marriage is simply a man taking an unmarried woman as his wife.

David
---David on 11/14/07


Dan,

You asked, "How do you get a second wife if you don't date her?....how would you not be committing adultery (in your heart) if your checking another woman out."

Wouldn't the same question be true of even a first wife? If Jesus' words in Matt. 5:27-28 meant that desiring any woman was adultery of the heart, then desire would be equated with adultery. Clearly this is not what He said nor what He meant.

David
---David on 11/14/07


Let me clarify something here because the phrasing of the question is imprecise.

> "Is polygamy a sin?"

If by polygamy, you mean multiple husbands (polyandry), then yes, that is defined in Scripture as adultery and therefore is a sin.

If by polygamy, you mean multiple wives (polygyny), then no, that is defined in Scripture as marriage and is not a sin.

David
---David on 11/14/07


How do you get a second wife if you don't date her? or flirt or look at other woman....how would you not be committing adultery (in your heart) if your checking another woman out.
---Dan on 9/30/07


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lori:

It gets worse. If unmarried women ARE actually married to Jesus, then when they get married, then either
1) they commit adultery when they marry their new husbands (since they are already married) or
2) Jesus divorces them first. But he said that anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery. So, in all cases, ALL christians who get married are therefore adulterers.
That belief must necessarily lead to this unpleasant conclusion.
---StrongAxe on 9/30/07


splaa6685:

You said:
"Yes, under the new covenent that was made through Jesus, multiple marraiges is adultry."

Can you cite a particular scripture to support this?
---StrongAxe on 9/29/07


funny. both protestants and catholics talk out of both sides of their mouths. catholics say all nuns are married to Jesus Christ, duh, that is polygamy. protestants teach women who are saved are married to Jesus Christ if they don't have a mortal husband on earth. duh, same thing. you have just called Jesus Christ a polygamist. you can't teach one thing and condemn it in the same breath. can we say major contradiction in doctrines. I wonder if I am the only one that caught that reading the blogs here.
---lori on 9/28/07


Yes, under the new covenent that was made through Jesus, multiple marraiges is adultry.
---splaa6685 on 9/28/07


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contorted their teachings on sex, marriage and the proper treatment of God's Law.
---Sam on 7/4/07
is this difficult for men or woman and what other areas of difficulty would you change.

I think being married to two or more people would be very difficult.
---Andrea on 9/27/07


should do away with the other NINE wives and keep one now that he is born again ? NO!
---Eng_Henry_Rawayo on 3/14/07

interesting predicament.

God ordained one woman one man, but He also hates divorce. Probably I'd have to release them all but the first wife but be responsible to them.
On the other hand doing the right thing may be dependent on the situation.

She would be free to leave
---Andrea on 9/27/07


Many cultures throughout time have had more than one god for worship. The Egyptians, Greeks, to the Mayans of Central America had a god for all aspects of life. If polygamy is a sin then their whole belief structure was a lie and none of them went to heaven. So do I think polygamy is a sin? Yes, more room in heaven for me!
---trent on 9/26/07


Mandatory monogamy is a difficult view to maintain given the open polygamy of many of the Bible's men of faith, and God's construction of laws that maintain and promote that polygamy, but it is a view that has captured most churches, and in doing so, contorted their teachings on sex, marriage and the proper treatment of God's Law.
---Sam on 7/4/07


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Well in my own words i would say Men dont get into pologamy for no reason.
Something drives them to it.IT may be some missunderstanding,that needs to be addressed, or aneed that has arrised What i can say here is we as believers needsDo yo want to tell me that if a man who has ten wives gives his life to JESUS that he should do away with the other NINE wives and keep one now that he is born again ? NO!
---Eng_Henry_Rawayo on 3/14/07


Scripture says God ordained a man and woman to marry, but not more than one. It is a sin.
---peg on 3/13/07


Abram conceived a child with Hagar before the covenant was confirmed, his name was changed to Abraham and he was circumcised. Abraham took Keturah to be his wife after Sarah died. Esau was rejected because he rejected the promise. Jacob predates the law given under Moses. Judah, the line of which Jesus is born, was born to Leah Jacobs first and legitimate wife.David was punished for His transgression against Uriah. Solomons plural marriages caused the Kingdom of Israel to be split.
---David_2 on 3/13/07


Matthew 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except [it be] for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. Divorce does not nullify the first marriage. The marriage to the second wife is an act of adultery.
---David_2 on 3/13/07


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Titus 3:9 But avoid foolish questions, and genealogies, and contentions, and strivings about the law; for they are unprofitable and vain. Why is this even a question? Polygamy is adultery by definition. A second wife, for example would be in an adulterous relationship with the husband of another woman. End of story.
---David_2 on 3/13/07


Gail, no I am not Mormon, nor do I believe in polygamy, now or in the future. I believe polygamy is opposed to every principle of faithfulness, love, and even human reason. I do believe we can let God bring conviction to any "who are otherwise minded". We can share our convictions and reasons. I appreciate the blogs very much, and especially those bloggers who are faithful to post Biblical answers rather than make blanket statements.
---Wayne87 on 3/12/07


Wayne87,

You said, "Not sure what could be so "bad" that they aren't posting it"

Not bad at all, just trying to answer your questions from a week ago. Apparently anything that even remotely questions the definition of certain Hebrew words (of which I cannot even post) are immediately purged. I would like to be more specific but I can't.

David
---David on 3/12/07


I apologize if I have inadvertently offended anyone during this discussion. Many of you have been very kind and thoughtful in your responses (from both viewpoints) and I appreciate it.

For the record, I am not mormon, nor do I believe in their teachings, but I understand that many people only associate multiple wives with mormons.

I have studied marriage, adultery and divorce in Scripture for many years now but apparently this subject is simply too offensive for many believers to discuss.
---David on 3/12/07


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David, I am sure they will not let me post an email here. You can reach me through my CN pen name and ask the question that way. I will know yours then also. Not sure what could be so "bad" that they aren't posting it, so if it is off the wall and not an honest question, then I may not respond. I am sometimes surprised by your statements that seem so wide of the mark.
---Wayne8738 on 3/11/07


His strategy: Separate and conquer.

Don't fall into his trap, Wayne87.

Keep safe using the public forum.
---Observer on 3/12/07


This entire blog is a blurr.
Wayne, do you believe in polygamy?
Not in the Old Testament, do you believe polygamy is acceptable today or in the future?
---Gail on 3/12/07


Wayne87,

I have a couple questions that I'd like to ask...since I'm being prevented from asking them here, could you send me an e-mail please?

Thanks, and God bless!

David
---David on 3/11/07


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MTS stands for Missionary Training School. a requirement for all young Mormon missionaries.

Now, dave, I notice how you sidestep questions, AGAIN.

Meanwhile, you ignore the core issues of your false, man-made religion.

WHERE ARE THE PLATES?
---John_T on 3/10/07


Muslims also believe that it is acceptable to have up to four wives and as many slave concubines as are supportable. Of course, they do obey the laws of the countries they are in, if not an Islamic state. Outside of these provisions, it is not permissable to engage in fornication or adultery - in some countries though, this can be a very liberal interpretation (not of the Qu'ran but in practice).
---lorra8574 on 3/9/07


P2 In at least one islamic country, if a married woman is found with another man she may be stoned to death; however, a married man has only committed adultery if he is caught with the same woman more than once in his own marriage bed. This is not in the Qu'ran specifically, but it is how some chose to apply it.
---lorra8574 on 3/9/07


Acts 17:30 says God winked at the times of ignorance, but NOW commandeth all men everywhere to repent of all sins. Over and over we find God accepting man's choices and seeking to draw him back to the right way, first in spirit/heart, then physically.

Contact with evil had affected the believers in God and they failed to realize the sacredness and absoluteness of God's will, of righteousness and sin. Step by step God sought to draw His children back from their ignorance and called them to repent.
---Wayne87 on 3/9/07


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#2 The Jews crucified Christ in ignorance (Acts 3:17), not knowing what they did, for Satan had blinded their eyes. Often we find people focusing on the letter of the law and finding ways to get around the command of God on a "technicality" and totally forgetting the principles upon which all the law hung. Even Saul who became Paul says that concerning the letter of the law, he was blameless, but when he saw the spirit of the law, he saw himself a sinner
---Wayne87 on 3/9/07


#3 Later maybe we can look at the "commanding, condoning, and participating" which I believe you completely misunderstand, but after taking weeks to agree on even the understanding of G1135, I hesitate to even start trying to explore other areas. Our goal is to understand God's will, then to let Him cleanse us from sin, bring us into harmony with His will in heart.

So is lighting a fire on the Sabbath in a cold climate a universal sin?
---Wayne87 on 3/9/07


#4 I would add to your thought that time and place must be considered--God's purpose in giving the command. I agree that the true meaning of the ten commandments is universal, but even Jesus said that the priests profaned the Sabbath,yet they were blameless (Matt 12:5)--i.e., saying it was not sin to do what God required on that day, even though it was work. Consider the experience of Israel in rejecting God and asking for a king, and how God related.
---Wayne87 on 3/10/07


John T,

You said, "you incessantly try to whittle away (as they taught you in MTS) our faith"

You obviously know more about mormonism than I do. MTS? No idea what it stands for (mormon teaching school, perhaps?) But why would you think I'm whittling away anyone's faith? My studying of Scripture has INCREASED my faith in God, not decreased it. Putting polygyny aside for a moment, where is the threat in reading God's definition of marriage, divorce and adultery in Scripture?
---David on 3/9/07


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Bottabing, bottaboom, JohnT. I was wondering when someone else would call this game.
There is no one on the face of the earth that would be obsessed with polygamy besides a Mormon, wondering how it's all going to come together in the Celestial Kingdom.
Gail from St. George, Utah.
---Gail on 3/9/07


"Would you consider the ten commandments to be the only universal law or something else? What about the command to not build a fire on the Sabbath?"

I consider all of God's law that defines right and wrong to be applicable to all people, including the Ten Commandments.

Just as people think I'm mormon for believing in the lawfulness of polygyny, now I'm sure they'll think I'm 7th Day Adventist for believing in keeping the Sabbath.
---David on 3/9/07


"How are we to make the decision between universal and individual? (Just using the two you did.)"

If God tells Abraham to take his son Isaac to sacrifice him on the mountain, that is a command to Abraham. If God tells His people not to commit adultery, that is a command to everyone. It's quite simple.
---David on 3/9/07


"God has winked at ignorance, but that doesn't make it any less sin"

So now God winks at sin?!? All sin (murder, stealing, idolatry) or just polygyny? Are you implicating God now in commanding (Deut 25:5), condoning (Ex 21:10) and participating (2 Sam 12:8) in SIN???

That sure looks like God had a direct hand in polygyny, which you claim is sin.
---David on 3/9/07


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David, my computer smells like sulfur because you incessantly try to whittle away (as they taught you in MTS) our faith by focusing on specious things, permitted, but never approved by God.

You do this in vain attempts of converting us to Mormonism.

Meanwhile, you ignore the core issues of your false, man-made religion.

WHERE ARE THE PLATES?
---John_T on 3/9/07


Not skipping the lust/coveting discussion at all, but simply trying to focus on polygamy as sin--it doesn't matter which we break, we become guilty of all because we have broken the spirit of the law which is love. We have not shown that one could covet only that which belonged to another in the sense you use it, for we saw that Israel lusted after that which was good. NT says, when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin.
---Wayne87 on 3/8/07


#2 To say that a man would be fulfilling the command to leave father and mother and cleave to his wife, by going out and marrying another wife is in my mind a complete denial of the Scriptures to love her as himself, and that he is now one with. If there was no other command to any person than that he or she should leave father and mother and cleave to wife/husband, and they didn't cleave, but instead went and married another, I believe they would be unfaithful to that command, and thus sinning.
---Wayne87 on 3/8/07


#3 No scripture that I know of says that marriage is one head, many members; in fact the emphasis is that there are only two that become one in a marriage.

I have no problem with sin being "universal" or "individual", but the point is that whenever one violates the principle of love, it is sin. When it comes to their knowledge, they become guilty (Leviticus 5:4, 4:28, etc.). In other words, the law enters that sin might be seen to be sin, working death (Romans 7:13).
---Wayne87 on 3/8/07


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#4 God has winked at ignorance, but that doesn't make it any less sin, and God seeks to bring a true knowledge of the spirit of His law of love to us. Thus it is that we are to grow up to the full stature of men and women in Christ.

Would you consider the ten commandments to be the only universal law or something else? What about the command to not build a fire on the Sabbath? How are we to make the decision between universal and individual? (Just using the two you did.)
---Wayne87 on 3/8/07


Wayne87,

I have tried posting several responses with no success (either I'm having terrible luck, or someone doesn't like what I'm showing in Scripture), so let me ask a simple question.

Were Abraham, Esau, Jacob, Moses, David, Gideon, Solomon and all the other patriarchs in Scripture that had multiple wives unaware of our modern, "correct" definition of adultery? Were they merely misinformed or were they all just acting in deliberate defiance of the seventh commandment?
---David on 3/8/07


"When God commanded Israel to go into Caanan and they wouldn't, I believe it was sin. This was not a universal law applicable to all people.

Okaaayy...let me rephrase.

For something to be UNIVERSAL sin, it must be sin to all people in all times across all cultures.

Universal sin requires a universal law. A universal law (one that applies to everyone) is sin if violated by anyone. A law that only applies to Fred is only a sin for Fred if he violates it.
---David on 3/8/07


"would it be sin if He had said it to a woman and she disregarded it. You said she would be sinning (adulteress). So if a man disregards it, then he likewise sins."

If such a command was given to a woman, and there was no such command against adultery, then the woman would NOT have been sinning. I said she was only sinning because she would be in violation of adultery by taking a second husband. The man is not disregarding God's comand, on the contrary, he is fulfilling it.
---David on 3/8/07


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"but when you say something is a fact, then it is proven to be false, is not this breaking the law, specifically, Thou shalt not bear false witness?"

No, the law against false witness means to claim to witness something falsely (I saw him steal the bread, she was with me the whole time, etc.) And if I have said something that turned out to be in error, I have apologized and rephrased my statement.
---David on 3/8/07


"He also said that if we looked on a woman (G1135) with lust, we committed adultery."

We're skipping the adultery (na'aph) discussion? And lust/coveting? We have shown you can only covet what belongs to another.

Matt 5:27-28: "You heard that it was said to those of old, 'You shall not commit adultery [na'aph].' But I say to you that everyone looking at a woman/wife [gune] to covet [epithumeo] for her has already committed adultery [na'aph] with her in his heart."
---David on 3/8/07


John T,

You asked, "Why does my computer suddenly smell like sulphur when I read that piece of drivel?"

I think a better question would be to ask why people will stubbornly hold to an unbiblical definition of "na'aph" (adultery), when Scripture clearly defines it in Lev. 20:10 and Deut. 22:22-24.

Were Abraham, Esau, Jacob, Moses, David (sans Bathsheba), Gideon, Solomon and many others all committing adultery according to your understanding of the term?
---David on 3/8/07


"if God said to a woman, You are to leave your father and mother and cleave to your husband, would it be sin for her. You said she would be an adulteress, i.e, a sinner. I say she would be unfaithful to God's command..."

She would be an adulteress because she is in violation of Lev. 20:10 and Deut. 22:22-24. If not for the law against adultery, the woman would no doubt be able to have as many husbands as she wanted. But God knew a body has ONE head and MANY members.
---David on 3/8/07


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I know of no direct word about Leah, condemning or blessing her thought. I was simply showing that the Bible gives a true record of even the blindness and sins of men. Genesis 30:17-18 does not say God gave Leah a child BECAUSE she gave her handmaid to Jacob. When God commanded Israel to go into Caanan and they wouldn't, I believe it was sin. This was not a universal law applicable to all people. It was simply the revelation of His will to them at that moment.
---Wayne87 on 3/7/07


#2 Shortly after that He told them to go back into the wilderness. Again they sinned (rebelled against His word) and went up and tried to take the land. Over and over sin is revealed to be refusal to obey His revealed will.

I am not seeking to define na'aph, was simply going on God's command to the man, and asking would it be sin if He had said it to a woman and she disregarded it. You said she would be sinning (adulteress). So if a man disregards it, then he likewise sins.
---Wayne87 on 3/7/07


#3 You are entitled to your opinion, your understanding, but when you say something is a fact, then it is proven to be false, is not this breaking the law, specifically, Thou shalt not bear false witness?

We have shared that G1135 is used of women, whether virgins or non-virgins, married or free to marry. Thus we found that G1135 was not defining a sexual status--having lain with a man. We found that the OT concept of women also included virgins and non-virgins, married and unmarried.
---Wayne87 on 3/7/07


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