alan_of_UK:
What does "Christian Era" MEAN? It was not used by early Christians - nobody thought of kept dates that way until half a millenium later. It is not from the birth of Jesus, which is estimated at between 3-6 B.C.
The Gregorian calendar was invented in 1582. It was used in Christian nations (hence "Christian Era"). Today, it's used universally - and most of the world is NOT Christian. As such, A.D. on dates in non-Christian areas is less accurate than C.E. |
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---StrongAxe on 5/8/08 |
Strong Axe ... point taken but that was "Christian Era"
When did the present meaning of Common Era introduced? |
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---alan_of_UK on 5/7/08 |
Fornication: To not live together blessed in union with God. (ie: Marraige). Roomate's aside, that means Giving it Up and Shacking Up with someone who is not your husband or wife. A man who's sewn his "wild oats" committed fornication. A woman has a revolving door between her knees committed fornication. Someone who doesn't respect their body as a temple for the Holy Spirit is someone who committed fornication. |
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---Nicola on 5/6/08 |
alan_of_UK:
The term A.D. was first conceived in 525, while C.E. (or equivalent) was first used in 1615. Wikipedia has a good article on these terms (I searched for "BCE"). |
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---StrongAxe on 5/6/08 |
Strong Axe ...
When were the terms BCE and CE introduced?
Have you ever come across anyone who objects to the use of the terms BC and AD? |
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---alan_of_UK on 5/3/08 |
alan_of_UK: (1)
The New Testament could easily have dated events relative to Jesus's birth (since most of it occurred aftwarards), but it did not do so. The closest we have to that is the comment that Jesus entered his ministry when he was "about" thirty.
Academic papers (for example) use C.E. and B.C.E. because such dates are religiously neutral - they deal with other topics, and do not wish to get embroiled in religious controversies (since not everyone is a Christian). |
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---StrongAxe on 5/3/08 |
alan_of_UK: (2)
Using A.D. or B.C. also implicitly states that Jesus is the Christ, and people of other religious beliefs may find that offensive, or at least out of place in academic subjects which are not related to religion.
In much the same way, one would expect to see a mathematical paper about the Pythagorean Theorem, but not one talking about "A theorem by that idoaltrous heathen Pythagoras who is doubtless burning in hell right now." |
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---StrongAxe on 5/3/08 |
Fornication is living in sin with someone without being married to them. Acts 15:20, "...abstain ...from fornication." 1 Corinthians 6:13, "...Now the body is not for fornication, but for the Lord..." 1 Corinthians 7:2, "Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband." And there is a verse that says, "Flee fornication." I couldn't find it. |
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---Elena5773 on 5/2/08 |
StrongAxe ... you say the Bible "always uses whatever common, secular, dating systems were in common use at the time"
Woul have been strnge for it to use BC, sic He had not yet hcome!
Our current dating system is based on Christ ... and AD & BC acknowledges this.
"Common Era" attempts to deny it and destroy the story of Jesus |
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---alan_of_UK on 5/2/08 |
There is no doubt in my mind which group of people are behind de-Christianization of the world, StrongAxe. You would be very shocked if you knew. |
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---frances008 on 5/1/08 |
frances008:
Concerning nomenclatures "ordained by God":
Note that the Bible itself never uses the terms A.D. and B.C. or anything similar - it always uses whatever common, secular, dating systems were in common use at the time (typically measured relative to the birth or death or reign of a king, Caesar, governor, etc.) |
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---StrongAxe on 5/1/08 |
Those who are dedicated to destruction are daring to change the TIMES and DATES ordained by God. They changed the Sabbath, God's sign of his Covenant with Israel. It is hardly surprising therefore that they are now changing the years to be Common Era. Trying to destroy God. I guess Elder is right, a little love and they will stop destroying God (not true). Jesus hates wickedness. |
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---frances008 on 4/29/08 |
Eloy said, (in Part) "elder,you think my postings are worthy to go into the trash..."
I never said that.
I do not answer your posts because they are right. I just think the people who read here need to know the real truth about matters that you distort.
You are so critical of others and call them what you want. When you are called to task you think everyone who does so is wrong.
God made people and He didn't make them to be trash. No matter how bad you want them to be.
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---Elder on 4/29/08 |
1) I keep it simple by believing that fornication has occured and we have sinned against our bodies through engagning in sexual intercourse outside of marriage. It will have physical and spiritual repurcussions. We are to resist this act with all of our strength and "FLEE". Thoughts that are impure are sinful in that they serparate us from God. But fornication requires an act with the body (except for fornication through the heart which is different issue). |
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---jody on 4/29/08 |
2) We need to remember that with God, sin is sin. When what we do is not "in faith", it is sin. Isolating sexual sin from others like idolatry or stealing/lieing, is erroneous since our sinful nature can jump from one thing to the other and they ALL seperate us from God and give place to the devil. We must focus on Jesus and walk in the Spirit to counteract the sinful nature. It starts in our thoughts and finishes in our flesh. The Spirit and Flesh will always be in conflict. |
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---jody on 4/29/08 |
.elder, I post Christian Righteousness, and exalt Christ. God loves those whom rightly praise him, but he has pure wrath and hatred for those whom reject him. Again, "A.D." is in the "Annual of the Lord", but "ce" is "trash" fabricated only for the sole purpose to dis Christ. Therefore all whom reject "Anno Domini", and instead substitute this righteousness with the trash "ce" are condoning to dis the Lord. |
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---Eloy on 4/28/08 |
.elder, I think not, for if you think my postings are worthy to go into the trash, then you would not have responded with your misjudgments, but instead would have ignored my righteousness, and as you have said, you would have trashed what I said.
- Eloy, April 29, 2008 A.D. |
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---Eloy on 4/28/08 |
Eloy is this Christian Love?
You said, "... ce and bce are trash, and all whom use them."
A person who makes a personal choice in writing is trash according to you. Freedom of speech and press.. I wonder.
Do you think the guy who said, "for 'I myself' and 'in stead' is trash also?
(I myself and in stead is wrong. It should be I and instead.) Back in the dumpster for you guy. |
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---Elder on 4/28/08 |
Millions whom properly use the accepted B.C. and A.D. get published all the time. And if you want intelligent persons to seriously respect you and your writings, then you better use the proper abbreviation when indicating years: for I myself ignore every and all writings which are 100% trash because they use the vain and incorrect abbreviation "CE" in stead of the right abbreviation "A.D." |
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---Eloy on 4/28/08 |
B.C. is "before Christ", and A.D. is "anno Domini" which is in the "annual of the Lord": but ce and bce are trash, and so are all whom use them. |
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---Eloy on 4/28/08 |
CE & BCE are the current accepted, academic standard for for publishing for both secular and religious articles if you want to get published in the English language, consult a current Manual of style.
Those are the professsional standards, people who follow them get published, people who chose to not to follow them get ignored. It is as simple as that!!! |
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---notlaw99 on 4/27/08 |
Emcee ... No, google does not give us the final blessings, but it does give the origin of the terms CE & BCE ! |
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---alan_of_UK on 4/26/08 |
Alan of UK::Guess we all need an education .But from Google? OK:-)it does not effect THE Belief.Blessings |
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---Emcee on 4/26/08 |
Emcee ... neutral terms like CE and BCE would be less offensive to the non-Christian majority.
Thjat seems t be behand it.
I got that from a google search.
Whilst CE could mean Christian Era, it is generally used by those who oppose Christianity ... or mainly atheist, becasue other religions seem to find no difficulty in using BC & AD, or even in respectinjg the Christian faith. |
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---alan_of_UK on 4/26/08 |
Alan of Uk::I was always under the impression CE stood for "Christian Era" and BCE="Before Christian Era".But one lives to learn. |
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---Emcee on 4/25/08 |
alan_of_uk:
The terms CE and BCE are generally used by people who acknowledge that western calendars (and, in general, world calendars, since most of the world now uses the Gregorian calendar) date from the time of Christ, but at the same time they either
1) do not wish to acknowledge that Jesus was the Christ, or
2) wish to make statement that is theologically neutral, to avoid getting into off-topic disputes with those of other religious beliefs (for example, Jews). |
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---StrongAxe on 4/25/08 |
Ok, notlaw, that's clear. But making women property, I would say, is anti-Christ. But *legally* making them equal or more is not enough. Law can't make people love. Look at how we have such equality in the United States, and yet half of our marriages turn into divorces. People don't know how to love, here. And the ones now divorcing in such numbers are the generation of the ones before. What will happen with the kids of *these* people? I intend to help with prayer. God bless you (o: |
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---Bill_bila5659 on 4/25/08 |
AlanOfUk, A-men Alan, how true it is. Foolish man always trying in vain to wipe out and crucify the truth, but there are people like us whom will always prove to the contrary the fact that Christ lives! |
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---Eloy on 4/25/08 |
I agree with Eloy ... BCE and CE meaning "before the Common Era" and "Common Era" whatsoever.
When did the "Common Era" begin? Thet date it from Christ ... why can't they be honest and use the right term?
"Common Era" is something dreamt up by atheists who wish to destroy our Christian heritage |
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---alan_of_UK on 4/25/08 |
There is absolutely no such thing as "CE" in reference to annual measurements: for there is only B.C., which means, "before Christ", and there is also A.D. "anno Domini" which means, in the "annual of the Lord". A "CE" is a vain and nonrelevant abbreviation from condemned clay, that incorrectly instructs nothing.
- Eloy, April 25, 2008 A.D. |
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---Eloy on 4/25/08 |
Bill_bila5659, I am talking about the Jewish culture of 1st century CE at the time of Christ not when the Old Testimate was transcribed, things had changed culturally during that interum. People could not keep the 613 laws and God sent Chrisit to set up a better way for his elect. |
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---notlaw99 on 4/24/08 |
Sebaga
1) The sexual implication of this words carnal use, is stifling to its true avoidance in our spiritual lives. If we do not give our soul to the Spirit of the Lord we are committing fornication. Fornication is the sin against your own soul 1Cor.6:18 and is the only reason we should separate ourselves from one another Matt. 5:32. |
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---Shawn.M.T on 4/19/08 |
2) 1Cor.6:18 Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body, but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body. Meaning the soul!
Matt. 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery. |
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---Shawn.M.T on 4/19/08 |
Emcee
**Sexual instinct is a basic act contrived by God **
1) You are Right it is contrived (not genuine) by God. Our Sexual instinct is a basic act of the flesh.
God is Spirit and we worship Him in Spirit & truth. From the beginning He has only wanted us to give our souls to His Spirit in all that we do, which edifies the body of the Lord. |
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---Shawn.M.T on 4/19/08 |
notlaw, Deuteronomy 22:25-26 says that if a man forces an engaged woman, he gets the death penalty. This tells me a woman has more status than just being property. And Isaac "loved" Rebecca (Genesis 24:67). So, I'd say Rebecca was more than just property to Isaac. Also, it says "So Isaac was comforted after his mother's death." I understand this means Rebecca was God's loving way of comforting Isaac . . . not just property. |
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---Bill_bila5659 on 4/19/08 |
(2) Also, Paul says "the husband is the head of the wife", in Ephesians 5:23. If a man is a woman's "head", they have a very intimate relationship. And a head cannot survive without its body. So, a Christian wife in God's love with her husband is much more than property. We are "members of one another" (Romans 12:5, Ephesians 4:25). Paul was making it very clear a wife is not just property, but a man could not make it without her. |
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---Bill_bila5659 on 4/19/08 |
Francis008 I don't think I was discussing Socialism, I was discussing the status of women in the ancient world and how these biggoted ideas transcend into modern society.
Politically I am a conservative, I would much rather preempt a problem from occurring then just respond to a problem. |
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---notlaw99 on 4/19/08 |
Notlaw99, are you a socialist? Do you believe in redistribution of goods, so that the Christian who has worked hard to have a nice house and two cars, ought to have a smaller house given to him, and his bigger house given to a family of many children with a single mother, perhaps? What about cars, how many are we allowed in your view? Can we have a bike and a car or is that not allowable under socialism? |
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---frances008 on 4/18/08 |
notlaw99 said, "Jewish law was very sexist society based on property rights..That was the culture thank goodness it has changed"
While abuses certainly were possible, the fact is that men and women are NOT the same, no matter what the culture says. We are equal in value before God, equal in terms of salvation, but we have different roles. A husband and a wife are NOT the same. A father and a child are NOT the same. Wives and children fall under the Husband's God-given authority as head. |
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---righteouswarriors on 4/18/08 |
You have to remember at the time of Christ Jewish law was very sexist society based on property rights. If a Virgin was raped the property right of her father were violated, Tort Law. If a married women was raped the property right of her husband had been violated again Tort Law. A women could never be a legal entity, she could never own property. If she was divorced, unmarriable or a widow, she was just property know one wanted. That was the culture thank goodness it has changed. |
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---notlaw99 on 4/18/08 |
When we attempt to prohibit women for holding ecclesiastical positions in modern society all we are doing in continuing first century sexual bias saying a woman is simply property and their opinions do not matter.
In the body of Christ all are equal: male, female, free-man and slave. And God is free to chose any one to represent Him. |
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---notlaw99 on 4/18/08 |
Biblically at the time of Christ fornication was a general all inclusive term for sexual offences under the 613 Jewish Laws as the Sanhedrin interrupted Rabotic code. Where Adultery had a more precise definition of a Married woman having intercourse with a man not her current husband. By that time a man could not be charged with adultery, he could only be charged with fornication which was a lesser charge in that legal system. |
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---notlaw99 on 4/18/08 |
zanah: Whoring, consisting of a man (married or unmarried) having sexual intercourse with a woman other than his wife, including a woman who prostitutes her body for hire.
porneia: Unlawful sexual relations: consisting of whoring (zanah), a man uncovering the nakedness of specific family members, a man uncovering the nakedness of a woman during her menses, adultery, a man having anal sexual intercourse with another male, and a man or a woman having sexual intercourse with an animal. |
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---righteouswarriors on 4/17/08 |
Sexual instinct is a basic act contrived by God for His edification in the progression of the Human race.This is usually to be used by 2 opposite gender partners contemplating a life together. Any sexual act for self gratification outside this state is determined as unlawful and named Fornication.The act of coitus is fornication. |
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---Emcee on 4/17/08 |
Illicit sexual intercourse, also metaphorically of the association of Pagan idolatry with doctrines of and professes adherence to, the Christian faith. [Rev. 14:8, 17:2,4. To commit fornication is used literally Mark 10:19. Check out Jude 7. Also, there are a whole bunch of other scriptures. Check them all out for me.>>I have to go! |
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---catherine on 4/17/08 |
believe that fornication is where a man or women who is married and he or she divorce's and marries someone who is never been married, then he or she is and adultries or adultery and the one who has never been married is the fornicatione
---charles on 7/6/07
Charles, you are correct. |
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---Chip on 4/16/08 |
The act of :Fornication is when anyone has sexual Intercourse (relations) with someone that they are not married to within the one husband one wife relationship. |
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---Carla5754 on 4/16/08 |
1 Thessalonians 4
1 Furthermore then we beseech you, brethren, and exhort you by the Lord Jesus, that as ye have received of us how ye ought to walk and to please God, so ye would abound more and more.
2 For ye know what commandments we gave you by the Lord Jesus.
3 For this is THE WILL of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from FORNICATION:
4 That every one of you should know how to possess his vessel in sanctification and honour, |
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---Duane_Dudley_Martin on 4/15/08 |
Ephesians 5
1 Be ye therefore followers of God, as dear children,
2 And walk in love, as Christ also hath loved us, and hath given himself for us an offering and a sacrifice to God for a sweetsmelling savour.
3 But FORNICATION, and all uncleanness, or covetousness, let it not be once named among you, as becometh saints,
4 Neither filthiness, nor foolish talking, nor jesting, which are not convenient: but rather giving of thanks. |
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---Duane_Dudley_Martin on 4/15/08 |
fornication is an act of going into sex in an illegal way. Usally fornication is done by unmarried people to ease sexual hunger. But its against God's law. |
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---mpirirwe on 4/15/08 |
I believe that fornication is where a man or women who is married and he or she divorce's and marries someone who is never been married, then he or she is and adultries or adultery and the one who has never been married is the fornicatione |
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---charles on 7/6/07 |
and Extra-marital.
Basically it is any sexual activity which is not blessed by marriage. |
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---alan8869_of_UK on 7/17/06 |
Pre-marital sex. |
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---Ralph on 7/16/06 |
Now you have to ask,What constitutes marriage? |
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---otny on 7/16/06 |
Well I asked the same question last year and Alan explained to me that one can fornicate if you are unmarried and also two people that are not married can also fornicate with each other. Hope this helps! |
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---Carla5754 on 5/5/06 |
I believe fornication is any form of sexual activity that compromises/defiles the temple (the body). You are crossing boundaries, physicially, emotionally and mentally and most importantly spiritually. Like any thing we "say" and "do", you can't take it back. You are never the same, again. Adultery, I believe is sexual activity outside the marriage union. Although, sexual betrayal refers to the body, it is betrayal to the spirit/emotion of the people involved, as well. |
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---irhnow on 2/9/06 |
"Fornication" is an old term fallen out of current usage, as is "lechery" which has the same meaning, both correctly mean "whoredom". The word "adultery" has a slightly different meaning (ad= to + ulter= other; literally meaning= "to another"), it means having intimate relations with someone "other than" the married spouse. |
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---Eloy on 2/9/06 |
"Fornication" is sex between two persons not married. |
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---WIVV on 2/8/06 |
I thought it was adultery that took in all sexual sins. The commandment says not to commit adultery- it doesn't differentiate between married or unmarried, homosexual, bestial. Fornication is, to my understanding, sex between people who are still single.
Moderator - Fornication has two main meanings. One meaning is any sexual sin and the second meaning as you stated. One must understand Greek to know which meaning is being used in a passage of scripture. |
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---Ann5758 on 2/8/06 |
If fornication was between two people who were not married then why would Jesus give intruction that divorce was permitted if it was becasue of fornication. You would have to be married to get a divorce. I believe fornication would be any sexual sin that involves someone other than your spouse, someone of the same sex, and sex with animals. Many of these can be done by married or single people. |
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---john on 2/8/06 |
Fornication takes in all sexual sins of any kind even though they may or may not be called by some other name.
There is physical fornication committed in and with the body and spiritual fornication committed by rebellion of some sort by the person in the act of obedience to God.
Fornication is not primarily committed by the unmarried as it can be by both. |
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---Elder on 2/8/06 |
Having sex before you are married. |
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---wes on 2/8/06 |
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