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Calling This Woman A Dog

In Mark chapter 7 verse 27 is Jesus calling this woman and or her nation a dog(s). How do you explain this besides being plainspoken?

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 ---mima on 2/18/06
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greetings.The Syrian woman who came to see Jesus that day was named Norana.Her daughter was afflicted with a nervous disorder.Simon Zelotes said to Norana,"It is not right you should expect the master to take the bread intended for the children of the favored household and cast it to the dogs".Norana replied,"Yes,I understand,I am only a dog in the jewish eyes but a believing dog.Would you dare to deprive the dogs of the crumbs that falls from the table?"
---earl on 7/14/07

Dogs to the Jews were the Gentiles, the unbelievers.
---Helen_5378 on 7/14/07

I had heard that the original word which was translated to dog meant a beloved pet...don't know if true though
---christina on 7/14/07

Mima, without researching I will make an educated guess, but plainspoken is the only way to tell it. OT God called male prostitutes "dogs". It seems Jesus would be indicating the woman/nation-Greek Syrophenician, had gone awhoring after other Gods, other than the true God, in other words they were Gentiles not Christians.
---Darlene_1 on 7/13/07

In that verse "dogs" is Strong's # 2952 and should have been translated "puppies". (Compare # 2965.) Puppies were in the houses to play with the children. Dogs weren't allowed in the houses. The children's food was for the children, not the puppies.

In Matt 15:24, Jesus said, "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel." His ministry was to Israel, not the nations. He wasn't insulting the woman, just giving an illustration she would understand.
---Jeffrey on 2/28/06

mima read the whole chapter in context. The Jews (not Jesus) at that time refurred to us gentiles as dogs. Jesus came to redeem mankind but to the Jew first then the nonjew or gentiles (us).
---willow on 2/28/06

Tommy, you are so right. There was a difference and Jesus didn't send the apostles to the gentiles until after Pentecost. Jesus did that for a reason. David stated the reason very well to the whole context of those passages. Emcee, you have to read the whole context. I believe we need to read the cercumstance at the time to know why those words were said.
---Lupe2618 on 2/27/06

Emcee, I didn't say Jesus had that feeling, or thought towards this woman or her people. I just stated that was the feeling of the Jews in Jesus' day. I know that Jesus was God in the flesh, and that ultimately He came to all people. If you will read the Scriptures, you will see that before Pentecost, when the disciples were sent out 2 by 2, they were instructed to go to the "house of Israel" only.
---tommy3007 on 2/19/06

Tommy::God is perfect he does not differentiate. true jews had that feeling but NOT Jesus who was GOD -perfect -everyones God. Davids answer is correct.
---Emcee on 2/18/06

In Jesus' day, the Gentile people were thought of as dogs by the Jews. They had a strong dislike/distrust of anyone not of the Hebrew nation. Jesus' main focus of His own personal ministry was geared to the reaching of the Jews; not until after Pentecost was the directive given to "go into all the world."
---tommy3007 on 2/18/06

Mima ::What do you think Jesus was implying, she was a gentile of Syrophonecian origin she begged him & He saw the faith she had, so where is the slur to her nation.This is what I mean reading & INTERPRETING THE Word. Its equivalent to spreading untruths.
---Emcee on 2/18/06

In this story, the children are the Jews of the nation of Israel. The bread (Jesus, salvation, and the Word of God) was first given to the Jews (Rom. 1:16.) What the Jews rejected, was offered to the rest of the world. -- Jesus was not insulting the woman or her nation, he was simply presenting a truth in a way she could understand. - Her answer was that she wanted and was willing to accept even the leftovers of what the Jews would reject - Jesus.
---david7477 on 2/18/06

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