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Fulfill All Righteousness

In the context of Jesus baptism; exactly what does "fulfill all righteousness mean? Matt 3:15
a. What did it mean TO HIM
b. and why?

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 ---Bruce5656 on 4/27/06
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Let's get back to the important point here...

I thought Dave made a fair and good point in saying:

"Why would someone quote Isaiah 64:6 which speaks about your righeousness being filthy rags...and yet when this verse is read in the context of the previous verses (Isaiah 64:4-5), then suddenly some people don't want to look at those verses and suddenly say Isaiah is OT and so it does not apply.

How come Isaiah 64:6 is okay...yet Isaiah 64:4-5 in OT and not okay?"

Dave asked a very fair and honest question, and if we truly want to understand the Bible, we must be brave enough to study it in its entirety and not just certain parts we prefer over other parts.
---Anne on 6/17/09


Kathr,
You compare yourself to the Lord Jesus Christ!!! and am I one of the Pharisees? Do you know what you are?
---Dave on 6/17/09


****Kathr,
Are you not the manifestation of you master the devil? Dave***

Lets look at the manifestation of teh personalities of those Jesus called the Devil as their father.

THEY accused Jesus all the time of being a sinner, liar and called HIM the devil.

Now Jesus said to us...if THEY hated me they will hate you too.

WHO were these guys? THEY were Pharisees..self-righteous clean on the outside, but dead man's bones on the inside.

THEY denied Christ in every way! You WILL know them by the rotren fruit coming out of their mouths.

There is no FRUIT of the spirit in them. 1st Cor 13 totally escapes their obedience.
---kathr4453 on 6/17/09


Kathr,
Are you not the manifestation of you master the devil?
When you quote my letter to Mima, why do you took a portion to twist? Read the rest of the letter.Dave***



Dave, are you Eloy's evil twin? Are you saying YOU too are God and anyone who questions you is of the devil?
---Rudy on 6/17/09


Kathr,
First, I am sorry that I had typed your name in the place of my name. It was a mistake.

Coming to the point: In order to show that your righteousness is filthy rag, you guys have no problem to quote Isaiah 64:6. In order to show you are wrong, I quoted the previous verse Isaiah 64:4-5. All of a sudden you say that Isaiah is OT and so it will not apply. How come Isaiah 64:6 is okay and Isaiah 64:4-5, is OT and it is not okay?
---Dave on 6/17/09




Dave, why are you using Kathr as your name here?

Isaiah is OT before Jesus died and rose again. WHY are you taking something out of OT spoken to a NATION..(I am not a Nation) and apply it to the Church.

Much of Isaiah is also talking to the Nation ISRAEL that will enter the Millenniel Kingdom Reign.

I believe it is you who have mis-applied and tristed scripture totally negating the finished work of Jesus Christ on the Cross.

The Gospel was kept secret in the OT, therefore those passages are not referring to the Gospel according to the Mystery..which is Christ in you.. Colossians 1.


---kathr4453 on 6/17/09


Kathr,
Are you not the manifestation of you master the devil?
When you quote my letter to Mima, why do you took a portion to twist? Read the rest of the letter.
###Look at the previous verse. ***Isaiah 64:4 since the beginning of the world men have not heard, nor perceived by the ear, neither hath the eye seen, O God, beside thee, what he hath prepared for him that waiteth for him. 5 Thou meetest him that rejoiceth and worketh righteousness, those that remember thee in thy ways*** This is the righteousness of those who obey him and walk in his ways. The glory of heaven waits for them.###
---Kathr on 6/17/09


Kathr,
Read Matt 23:13-38.

Those who preach not to obey God and those who preach to obey God are not brethren.

Those who preach not to sin anymore and those who preach to continue to enjoy sin are not brethren.

They work for two different masters. Nobody can work for both the masters.
---Dave on 6/17/09


Dave, please show me anywhere I have told anyone NOT to Obey God? Or that we should continue in sin that Grace may abound.

YOU have falsely accused ME of these things. That makes YOU an accuser of the Brethren.

ACCUSERS of the Brethren are DISOBEDIENT to the KNOWN will and mind of God clearly stated in Scripture.

Therefore Dave YOU are a sinner! YOU SIN without conviction!
---kathr4453 on 6/17/09


When a person is baptized he is baptized into Christ. Why so? Because Jesus got baptized for us, you and me. He could not have got baptized for himself since he had no sin. When Jesus said to "fulfill all righteousness" he was referring to our mine and your's righteousness. You see we had need to be made righteous, and we could not fulfill our own righteousness, but Jesus being baptize in our place gained us are righteousness because we get his righteousness when we accept him!!! It is for this reason that we are baptized into JESUS!!
---mima on 6/17/09


Mima, great answer. "It is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness" found in Matth. 3:15 is talking about Christ indentifying Himself with sinners. He will ultimately bear their sins, His perfect righteousness will be imputed to them (2 Cor. 5:21). This act of baptism was a necessary part of the righteousness He secured for sinners. This first public event of His ministry pictures
1. It pictured His death and resurrection (Luke 12:50).
2. It therefore prefigured the significance of Christian baptism (v. 6).
3. It marked His first public indentification with those whose sins he would bear (Is. 53:11, 1 Peter 3:18).
4. It was a public affirmation of His messiahship by testimony directly from heaven (v. 7).
---MarkV. on 6/17/09




What gets baptized, the Spirit or the Flesh?
---Nana on 3/18/09

Well Nana, Romans 6 say we are baptized into His death. So I believe the Baptism of Fire is that which burns away the chaff( our flesh).

Colossians 2 also state this:

11In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:

12Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

Spiritual circumcision is as was given Abraham as a TYPE...the cutting away of the FLESH!!!
---kathr4453 on 6/17/09


Kathr,
Read Matt 23:13-38.

Those who preach not to obey God and those who preach to obey God are not brethren.

Those who preach not to sin anymore and those who preach to continue to enjoy sin are not brethren.

They work for two different masters. Nobody can work for both the masters.
---Dave on 6/17/09


Dave also read these verses:



Proverbs 30:10
Accuse not a servant unto his master, lest he curse thee, and thou be found guilty.

2 Timothy 3:3
Without natural affection, trucebreakers, false accusers, incontinent, fierce, despisers of those that are good,

1 Peter 3:16
Having a good conscience, that, whereas they speak evil of you, as of evildoers, they may be ashamed that falsely accuse your good conversation in Christ.

Rev 12:10
And I heard a loud voice saying in heaven, Now is come salvation, and strength, and the kingdom of our God, and the power of his Christ: for the accuser of our brethren is cast down, which accused them before our God day and night.
---kathr4453 on 6/17/09


Hbr 10:10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once [for all].
Hbr 10:19 Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus,

JESUS the lamb or sin offering from the foundation of the world.

Rom 5:11 And not only [so], but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the atonement.

1Jo 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for [the sins of] the whole world.
1Jo 4:10 Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son [to be] the propitiation for our sins.
---Samuel on 6/17/09


Mima,
You wrote: **Just as our righteousness is filthy rags before the Lord, etc**
You did not study this from the Bible, but false teachers taught you. ***Isaiah 64:6 we are all as an unclean thing, and all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags, and our iniquities,*** This verse is for sinning unrighteous people.Dave***

Obviously DAVE here thinks he's a righteous person apart from Jesus Christ.

DAVE fails to understand ALL have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God.

Dave never read Isaiah 53!

Dave is a Pharisee....Proud, arrogant selfrighteous
---kathr4453 on 6/17/09


Dave I suggest you study 1st. John 1-8,
" 8-If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us." Now based on that verse let me ask you are you guilty of sin? Do you have sin?
---mima on 6/17/09


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Mima,
You wrote: ***I believe Jesus at his baptism took my place***
Did you find it in any book? Stop reading books and study the Bible. Jesus Christ died not only for you, but for the whole world. So, do you add it up and say that he is your proxy for anything you want? Cut it out, because it is sin.
---Dave on 6/16/09


Mima,
You wrote: **Just as our righteousness is filthy rags before the Lord, etc**
You did not study this from the Bible, but false teachers taught you. ***Isaiah 64:6 we are all as an unclean thing, and all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags, and our iniquities,*** This verse is for sinning unrighteous people.
Look at the previous verse. ***Isaiah 64:4 since the beginning of the world men have not heard, nor perceived by the ear, neither hath the eye seen, O God, beside thee, what he hath prepared for him that waiteth for him. 5 Thou meetest him that rejoiceth and worketh righteousness, those that remember thee in thy ways*** This is the righteousness of those who obey him and walk in his ways. The glory of heaven waits for them.
---Dave on 6/16/09


"Just as our righteousness is filthy rags before the Lord and will not be accepted by him so is our baptism unacceptable before the Lord."
mima on 3/16/09
The righteousness of the Churches in Revelation was it not accepted, and rather their unrighteousness was it that was called to be righted?
Who was it that said, "It is the spirit that quickeneth, the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life."?
What gets baptized, the Spirit or the Flesh?
---Nana on 3/18/09


I believe Jesus at his baptism took my place and your place and was in fact our substitute.
Just as our righteousness is filthy rags before the Lord and will not be accepted by him so is our baptism unacceptable before the Lord. For that reason when we are baptized we are baptized into Christ and it is Christ,s baptism that is acceptable before Almighty God. And because we have been baptized into Christ we get the righteousness of Christ baptism account to us.
I feel something like this is the answer as to why Christ got baptized since it is very obvious that he didn't get baptized for his own forgiveness of sins. Because of course he had no sin!!!
---mima on 3/16/09


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Meaning: Jesus was born a Jew of the house of David and Not a Levite. Not being from the priestly line he would break the law giving himself as a sacrifice,and be a sinner. SO as God told Moses in the old testament to baptize Aaron into the priesthood, Jesus had to be baptized into the Melchizedekian priesthood. See Psalms 110 and Hebrews 6-7
Paul is able to preach we have a priesthood greater the Levitical priesthood
---LOU on 3/15/09


Before Christ's resurrection, unrighteousness was transgression of the law and righteousness meant compliance with the law. Paul wrote (Rom 3:21ff) that now a righteousness apart from the law had been made known, but Jesus lived under the law, and to "fulfill all righteousness" meant there was a law Jesus had to comply with. He says His baptism was that compliance. Hebrews lays out for us Jesus' ministry as High Priest, but declares that, being of the tribe of Judah, not Levi, there must be a change in the law. God commanded Moses concerning the dedication of the first Levite priests, but Jesus, not being a Levite, had to be likewise consecrated for ministry (Num. 8:7). So he was "sprinkled with the water of purification".
---Kenneth_Simmons on 12/2/08


Since baptism in water is an illustration and identification with the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus, He was saying here that His death, burial, and resurrection (and how we are identified by Father God in that) fulfills all righteousness. There is no righteousness greater than who He is and what He did and the only way we will ever experience true rest is to enter into His works.
---Linda6563 on 9/29/07


Thank you for sharing your excellent insight. Would you agree that Our Lord's baptism was His being both washed as a Priest and annoited as a King? God bless.
---david on 12/27/06


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Obviously we could link the baptism to the whole idea of the Jews washing in a Miqva to cleanse themselves of sin in preparation for the coming Messiah that John was preaching. But Jesus' response to John's reference to his own sins needing to be cleansed, was, "Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us ..." John let it be so. Why? Because John understood Exodus 40:11-13. He knew the coming Messiah was to be a King and a Priest. The law required the Priest to be washed...
---fbtweiss on 8/6/06


Hebrews 3:3 For this man was counted worthy of more glory than Moses, inasmuch as he who hath builded the house hath more honour than the house. Jesus gave the law to moses he is its maker Hebrews 3:6 But Christ as a son over his own house; whose house are we, if we hold fast the confidence and the rejoicing of the hope firm unto the end. A son is not bound by the law only a servant as moses was, Under grace you are a Son under law you are a servant to law and sin.
---exzuc6636 on 5/12/06


Hello Bruce and Chris, I too believe that is what is meant by, "to fulfill all righteousness" as you go to verse 16,17, Here all 3 persons of the Trinity are clearly delineated. The Father's command to hear His Son and the Spirit's vindication and empowerment officially inaugurated the third person, Christ" for His ministry. It was also a necessary part of the righteousness He secured for sinners. And prefigured the significance of Christian baptism.
---Lupe2618 on 5/12/06


yep, we are in agreement
---chris on 5/12/06


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Chris,
Yes, the pharisee's had their own bloated, corrupted version of the law. I was thinking of the true Mosaic law.
---Bruce5656 on 5/12/06


Yeah Bruce, sounds like we are in agreement. He was born without sin unlike the rest of humanity, but I dont know that he had to follow the law as the Jews knew it. I believe that he knew the law differently. The Jews had it all messed up from Gods true laws. Ex. The Pharasees getting on Christs case for doing works on the Sabbath. So in other words, He followed Gods law, not mans version of the law.
---chris on 5/11/06


PART ONE:
Chris,
I wonder if we are not saying the same thing only with different words? His untainted nature is beyond dispute, agreed.

You said: "He did not fall unto the law because he did not have the sinful nature."

I take it by this you mean he did not "fall" as in sin by breaking the law. If so, I agree.
---Bruce5656 on 5/11/06


PART TWO:
However, while Jesus was not bound by the "law of sin and death" that Paul says he has freed us from, as a Jew, he was obliged to observe all aspects of the law. The fact that he did observe all aspects of the law with out fail and was with out sin when he died, is why he can be our sacrifice.
---Bruce5656 on 5/11/06


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..bruce, my definite answer, not an opinion, remains the same.
---Eloy on 5/11/06


-Bruce, I understand it like this, Jesus was not born of earthly seed. He was planted by the Holy Spirit so that his humanity would not be tainted by our corrupt blood. He was born without sin as adam was created without sin. We on the other hand are born into sin and must be cleansed. He did not fall unto the law because he did not have the sinful nature. Not to mention that he was the Son of God. Wouldnt we like to come from that blood line.
---chris on 5/11/06


eloy,
You have just restated what you have said before once again.

Read Chris' answer below. He offers an explaination as to the significance of baptism for Jesus. That being a means by which John could identify the messiah.

You say Jesus was obedient. Obedient to what command?

Clearly, there is lots of opinion but there is no definitive answer as to just what this meant to Jesus.
---Bruce5656 on 5/11/06


Exzucuh,
How is it that Jesus was exempt from the law? Was he not a jew? Why was he any less under the law than his mother and brothers?
---Bruce5656 on 5/11/06


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..bruce, the actual act of getting baptized was the fulfillment Jesus spoke of. Jesus was obedient, and therefore fulfilled God's will, all of it, even baptism.
---Eloy on 5/11/06


Jesus was not under the law he came to fulfill the law he came under Grace without it he could not heal not one person because he had not yet died for their sins. Matthew 12:8 For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day. Sinners are under the law the Sons of God are free and under Grace.
---Exzucuh on 5/10/06


2- So in Matt. 3:15 he is fulfilling righteousness by fulfilling prophesy. If Jesus missed in a single prophesy, then he would not be the real Christ. In order to be Christ he has to be righteous through humanity and must complete all prophecy. Then we see the fulfillment of this in verse 16 when the spirit descends.
---chris on 5/10/06


If you look at this in John 1:25-34 John tells them one is coming that "ye know not". John must baptize him so they may know it is him "but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water." There will be a sign to show who is Christ so they will know "he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost."
---chris on 5/10/06


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eloy,
I am not trying to be argumentitive here. All you have said is to repeat what was said before.

It is a given that being baptized was the "righteous" thing to do. Jesus said as much but what was it about the baptism that fulfilled righteousness?
---Bruce5656 on 5/10/06


..bruce, From Jesus' point of view, the fulfilling of all righteousness that he fulfilled was his actual getting baptized. If he refused to get baptized, then he would not have fulfilled all righteousness.
---Eloy on 5/10/06


eloy,
Thank you for the english lesson.

The question remains unanswered. What specificaly about the baptism, from Jesus' point of view,` was it, that "fulfilled righteousness."
---Bruce5656 on 5/10/06


It means exactly what the three words say. Fulfill- complete and do and perform God's will; All- total and entire and every; Righteousness- full of right and rightful and just and moral obligation.
---Eloy on 4/30/06


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Exzucuh, from the sound of all your answers you sound very much like another person here on the website, from who's name are you hiding from? Why the mystery? Why not use the same name?
---Lupe2618 on 4/30/06


Exzucuh.
You are talking about the church age. Jesus was a Jew under the law. Not part of the church age.

Steve,
What Mosaic command is that?
---Bruce5656 on 4/30/06


Baptism in the Spirit is the promise it is given and in Gods power. water baptism is obedience and in our power to obey, Cornelias and his whole house was baptised in water,as was every one in the early church any one not doing so would have been concidered rebellious.
---Exzucuh on 4/30/06


Jesus was sent here yes to take the sin from the world(those who believe him) and to fullfill law. There are 7 baptisms in the bible, only one saves and its not water. Jesus was water baptised to fulfill mosiac law. Notice that he was 30 when he got the Holy Spirit. After he was water baptised same as Acts 2:38. To the jews at that time, cause when you get to acts 10 43-44 you see that Corrnileous recieved the Holy Spirit after believing.
---Steve on 4/30/06


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to bruce the commandment was given to John by God. It was a rhema commandment not logos same as the one to Abraham to sacrifice Isaac.obedience is required to obey any commandment,God gave a rhema commandment saying this is my beloved Son, hear ye him.
---Exzucuh on 4/30/06


Correction- In my first post I referenced Mat. 13:14,15. Of course I meant Mat 3:14,15
---Tina5349 on 4/29/06


#3 Mat 3:16,17 After being baptized, Jesus came up immediately from the water; and behold, the heavens were opened, and he saw the Spirit of God descending as a dove and lighting on Him, and behold, a voice out of the heavens said, "This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well-pleased."

Because the Father is pleased with His Son, He is pleased with me. Jesus is my substitute.
---Tina5349 on 4/29/06


#2 I think Mima is onto something. Jesus did not need repentance and is agreeing with John. But though He is sinless He is the sin-bearer. For the sake of sinners Jesus became a sinner. He must, therefore, do what God has charged the sinners to do, in order that they may become just through Him. Everything He did, He did for us.
---Tina5349 on 4/29/06


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Mat 13:14,15 But John tried to prevent Him, saying, "I have need to be baptized by You, and do You come to me?" But Jesus answering said to him, "Permit it at this time; for in this way it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness."

John is admitting that he is a sinner and that Jesus is sinless.
---Tina5349 on 4/29/06


Exzucuh,

"He fulfilled every command including water baptism."

Where is that command (keeping in mind the NT was not written) that you say Jesus obeyed.
---Bruce5656 on 4/29/06


jesus went to the cross for us but yet he said if we did not take up our cross we were not worthy of him. he did not fulfill all righteousness so we can sit back and do nothing. WE must also do the same, but our yoke is easy and burden light campared to his. this is our faith by works.
---Exzucuh on 4/29/06


Satan defeated a man Adam and took his authority Jesus the man Christ had to defeat Satan as a man or it would not be righteous judgement on Gods part. He fulfilled every command including water baptism. Sin came by the tree and was defeated on the tree. carnality the seed of satan came by the tree, it was nailed to the tree and defeated.
---Exzucuh on 4/29/06


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PART ONE:
Please understand, I am not trying to be argumentitive here. I am trying to understand what he meant. Your answers largly deal with what righteousness means to us today. Our righteousness is the result of what he did on Calvary, not in the Jorden. He said he was to be baptized "to fulfil all righteousness." What did that mean for him. Not for us. Would John have understood what he meant?
---Bruce5656 on 4/29/06


PART TWO:
Mima, your answer still is dealing with what it means to us. What did his being baptized have to do with representing us? Where is the idea presented that baptism effects some change in him or us?
---Bruce5656 on 4/29/06


I was a sinner then I was transformed, Born again, now not having the nature of Adam I do righteousness, with a contrite spirit seeking to be filled with the fullness of Christ, not confessing defeat because I am still in the body,but speaking faith those things that be not as though the are,recieving Gods word.
---Exzucuh on 4/29/06


"In order to fulfill all righteousness" could possibly mean, that in so stating, Jesus was accepting his role in being our substitute. Standing in our place as it were. All people must accept imputed righteousness outside of themselfs. Failure to do so is to miss salvations most urgent requirement. The world teaches behavior is our most urgent requirement, but that is not so. Evidenced by the fact that while we were yet sinners Christ died for us.
---mima on 4/29/06


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Psalms 15:1-2 LORD, who shall abide in thy tabernacle? who shall dwell in thy holy hill? He that walketh uprightly, and worketh righteousness, and speaketh the truth in his heart. to fullfill rigteoousness is to do Gods will, his will is to believe on his Son and do what he says. working faith produces faith that works.
---Exzucuh on 4/29/06


2. and the other faith is the faith that produces something and its living faith. That's what he is saying, "Oh," but he says "I believe, I believe," "Yeah," he says, "The devils believe and they tremble," It's not enough to believe unless that believing results in an act of commitment to Christ that results in a changed life that bears fruit. That's his whole point.
---Lupe2618 on 4/29/06


In James the faith talked about was the difference between faith and a living faith. The one that has true faith will show works of righteousness. What he is saying in verse 17, so faith if it doesn't have works, is dead, because it's alone." So it's a dead faith not a living faith. "a man may say, thou hast faith, and I have works; show me you faith without your works, and I'll show you my faith by my works." So the one kind of faith that doesn't have any works is dead faith
---Lupe2618 on 4/29/06


Lupe,
While I don't entirely agree with your conclusion [I see a distinction between being baptized in the Body (Jesus) by the Holy Spirit at conversion (at which time the Spirit takes residence), and being baptized in the Holy Spirit by Jesus following conversion.]

However, that is a subject for another blog [oh wait we did that already... uh ... a few times. :)]

I am interested in your thoughts on what it meant to Jesus "to fulfill all righteousness."
---Bruce5656 on 4/29/06


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4. Here there is no water involve, Christ is the Baptizer who emmerses each believer with the Spirit into unity with all other believers. Pauls point is to emphasize the unity of believers, for there cannot be any believer who has not been Spirit -baptized, nor can there be more than one Spirit baptism or the whole point of unity in the body of Christ is convuluted. Believers have all been spirit-baptized and thus all are one body.
---Lupe2618 on 4/28/06


3. I don't see any evidence? That is all that verse is talking about. Works is evidence of true saving faith. In the case of baptism of water, salvation by faith is first, and baptism after as evidence of our commitment to Christ. The spiritual baptism Bruce is talking about is our unity to the body of Christ, found in 1 Cor. 12:13 takes place at the time of conversion, as Paul mentions "For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body"
---Lupe2618 on 4/28/06


2. Alright, if you have true saving faith then I ought to see some evidence of it, right? (since by their fruits you shall ) "what?" ..know them." He is simply saying, if your faith is genuine then it's going to manifest itself. "If any man be in Christ he is a new creation, old thing are passed away and behold all things become "what?" ..new." There is going to be a manifestation. And so he say, what kind of fith have you got my friend,
---Lupe2618 on 4/28/06


Exzucuh, On..Faith without works is dead (James 2:20) I believe if we read the whole context and go back to verse 14,"What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him?" Now the bible teaches that you are saved by faith, well, what in the world is James saying? Can faith save him? James is looking at this from the stand point of evaluation. He is looking at a man who says, "I have faith" And James is saying,
---Lupe2618 on 4/28/06


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Faith without works dead.Jesus said the father is always with me because I do what pleases him
therefore it would stand to reason that if he did no works of righteousness the father would leave him. these works prove faith. without them there is no evidence of faith. as Abraham sacrificed Isaac was works of righteousness pleasing to God,his faith was in God to deliver Isaac. baptism is part of Gods plan for salvation it is rebellion to discredit it.
---Exzucuh on 4/28/06


PART ONE:
Mima,
The logical conclusion to your explainition is that baptism is essential to salvation. Granted, you said that Jesus was baptized for us, but what does baptism have to do with salvation?

Our being baptized into Jesus is something that takes place, invisibly, at conversion. Paul describes this (baptism at conversion) in Romans 6 (nothing about water baptism there.)

Now, I know that many read Romans 6 and automaticaly assume that it is about water baptism.
---Bruce5656 on 4/28/06


PART TWO:
However, if it is, then we must be baptized to be saved. If it is about baptism by the Spirit, into the body at conversion, then we see it has nothing to do with water. In this case it would harmonize perfectly with I Cor 12:13 "For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body..."

What I am looking for is what it meant to Jesus personaly, not what it means for us today.
---Bruce5656 on 4/28/06


Part 3 if this scenario is close to being right then the baptism of Jesus Christ to" fulfill all righteousness" was a baptism on our behalf because Jesus's baptism is acceptable before the Father and you and I being baptized in Jesus is how we are acceptable to the Father. Those of us who would attain heaven must do so with complete dependency on what the Lord Jesus Christ has done on our behalf!!!
---mima on 4/28/06


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Part 2 When a person is baptized he is baptized into Jesus. And by being baptized into Jesus we are putting on, so to speak in the eyes of the Father, the righteousness that Jesus has before the Father, which of course is perfection. The reason we need to be hidden in the Lord Jesus Christ by baptism is this fact. Our baptism is unacceptable before the Father. How do we know this. All our righteousness is as filthy rags before God. And our baptism on our behalf would be an act of righteousness.
---mima on 4/28/06


Part 1 When Jesus told John to suffer his baptism to take place now, in order to fulfill all righteousness he would not talking about his own righteousness. Because he was never at any time unrighteous. Therefore this to" fulfill all righteousness" necessarily refers to someone else's righteousness. And that someone else refers to you and me at all that will accept Jesus Christ.
---mima on 4/28/06


Mt 21:32 For John came unto you in the
way of righteousness, and ye believed him not:
---Exzucuh on 4/27/06


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