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Jesus At The Right Hand Of God

What do you make of the fact that at Stephen's stoning, Jesus was seen standing in heaven (Acts 7:55,56), and there after is said to be seated at the right hand of the Father?

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Lolita,

Hah, good one.
---scott on 8/13/10


"Sitting/standing at God's right hand" can not be an indication of "equality".

How could that possibly be when Paul prophetically paints this picture of Christ (22 years after his death and resurrection):

'"When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him who put all things in subjection under him, that God may be all in all." 1 Cor 15:27, 28

"Subjection" Gk hupotasso=

Thayer's Lexicon:

"Arrange under, Subordinate
To subject, put in subjection
To subject one's self, obey
To submit to one's control
To yield to one's admonition or advice
To obey"
---scott on 8/13/10


so you think that he has to sit the whole time for eternity?
---lolita on 8/13/10


Continued as referenced-
Complete action.
Through Him-by Him-For Him-Eternal life.Elohyim-has Words(Yeshua)-Elohyim is Spirit(Holy Spriit).
God-past-present-future.
This can be understood within our Western culture thinking-However-the Ancient Hebrew thought was only complete action and in complete action.
I Am-I Am
In the ancient Hebrew perspective is defined-and letter definition meaning:
Is-What is not yet.

The Word of God(Yehsua)and Spirit of God(Holy Spirit)is God complete.
---char on 8/13/10


Referring back to Ernest 1 comments of 8/10/10, it is becoming increasingly evident that Ernest simply does not understand the purpose of an 'interlinear' translation.

Usually, an interlinear will have the translation under each Greek word setting out what the Greek word itself says according to its root meaning. So in many cases and this seems to elude Ernest, the reading in the English word-for-word interlinear translation is not the same as that found in the formal English translation.

I suspect Ernest does not have a 'Kingdom Interlinear Translation' in his possession. Whatever the case, the NWT exposes the trinity for what it is- False doctrine - thus attracting the type of groundless criticism from trinitarians.
---David8318 on 8/13/10




Ernest 1 asks to 'find any other place where it ('ego eimi') is not translated, "I am"?

John 8:58 is the only occurrence of where the historical present is applicable to 'ego eimi'.

Even the King James Version renders some historical Greek presents as English past tenses, eg. Matthew 3:1.

That a historical present in the Greek in the midst of a context of the past tense is properly rendered in English as a past tense is recognized by other modern Bible translators.

Dr.James Moffatt (RSV) renders John 8:58, 'Truly, truly I tell you, said Jesus, 'I have existed before Abraham was born.''

Prof.E. J. Goodspeed (ASV) renders John 8:58, 'Jesus said to them, I tell you, I existed before Abraham was born!'
---David8318 on 8/13/10


It's all a metaphor. God doesn't have hands.
---ger.toshav on 8/12/10

My GOD has hands....with fingers. My GOD had nails driven through his hands.

Hebrews 10:31
It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God.
2 Chronicles 6:4
And he said, Blessed be the LORD God of Israel, who hath with his hands fulfilled that which he spake with his mouth to my father David, saying,
Deuteronomy 9:10
And the LORD delivered unto me two tables of stone written with the finger of God,
Daniel 5:5
In the same hour came forth fingers of a man's hand, and wrote over against the candlestick upon the plaister of the wall of the king's palace: and the king saw the part of the hand that wrote.
---Trav on 8/13/10


"Hebrew and Greek for the same verb usage as Exo 4:14 shall we? -micha9344

Who said anything about "Exo 4:14?

My comments are concerning the Hebrew text (not the Greek) and a comparison of the Hebrew word "Ehyeh" at Ex 3:14 with other examples of "Ehyeh" (sometimes in the very same chapter).

"Ehyeh" appears just 2 verses earlier in vs.12. And it's rendered in most (if not all) translations as "will be" rather than "I Am". By the way (from what I can tell) the 'pointing' is exactly the same.

Feel free to actually read my comments before accusing me...shall we?
---scott on 8/13/10


Exist-Past-Present-future-
Elohyims' Word is His door to Him.
Believe in it or not.
I Am past-I Am present-I Am future
I Exist-I come to pass-I Am He-
The ancient Hebrew letter(D)-dalet definition is movement-hang-enter.
The pictograph is a door.
Without knowing the definitions of the letters-the context is lost.
Micah-the door Christ came forth from Yehuw-Dah-
Jn10:9Walk in or out of the door-to rest.
If you are standing in front of the door-you have not walked in-yet.If you are walking into the door-you are entering.
If you have walked in the door-you have walked through it.

Through Him-by Him-For Him-Eternal life.Elohyim-has Words(Yeshua)-Elohyim is Spirit(Holy Spriit).
God-past-present-future.
---char on 8/13/10


Let's check Hebrew and Greek for the same verb usage as Exo 4:14 shall we? (Masoretic and Septuagint)
Genesis 26:3 neither Hebrew nor Greek
Genesis 31:3 no and no
Exodus 3:12 no and no
Exodus 4:12 interestingly yes but not Greek
Exodus 4:15 again yes(H), but no(G)
Deuteronomy 32:23 Wrong reference? no verb 'to be' here.
Joshua 1:5 Mas. vowel points are different, no(G)
Judges 6:16 Mas. vowel points, no(G)
Judges 11:9 Mas. vowel points, no(G)
1 Samuel 23:17 no and no
etc., etc., etc.,--not very good Greek references. It makes me wonder if your trying to prey on the ignorance of others just to get your point across.
YNG does translate all but Deu 32:23 as 'I am'.
---micha9344 on 8/13/10




Ernest,

Who spoke these words at John 9:9?

When the crowds asked "Is not this he...?" His response was:

"...lego hoti - ego eimi."

Literally= "He said, - 'I am".
---scott on 8/13/10


Ernest 1,

It appears that essentially all occurrences of "ehyeh" in the first 5 books of the bible are rendered "will be", "have been", etc. rather than "I am."

Why do you suppose most (not all) translations render the same word at Ex 3:14 as "I am"? Could it be theologically driven?

Genesis 26:3 "I will be with you" (*NRSV), Genesis 31:3 "I will be", Exodus 3:12, "I will be", Exodus 4:12 "I will be," Exodus 4:15, "I will be", Deuteronomy 32:23 "I will be," Joshua 1:5 "I will be", Judges 6:16 "I will be," Judges 11:9, 1 Samuel 23:17, etc., etc., etc.,

*All NRSV
---scott on 8/13/10


Ernest 1 refuses to recognize the difference in sentence structure between John 10:7,9,11,14, with John 8:58.

In fact, the sentence structure at John 10:7,9,11,14 more closely resembles Exodus 3:14, LXX.

So Ernest 1 believes when Jesus said, 'Ego eimi ho Thura' ('I am the Door') at John 10:7, Jesus is calling the AlmightyGod, a "door". Did Jehovah say to Moses to tell the Israelites that ''I am the Door' has sent me to you'? Sorry, but we had to have a laugh at that one!

'Ego eimi ho Thura', at John 10:7 is translated as 'I am the door', because 'Ego eimi' does not follow the aorist infinitive clause as it does in John 8:58. Ernest 1 is loyal to false doctrines that sadly blind him to Biblical accuracy and truth.
---David8318 on 8/13/10


Elohyim spoke and performed.
It is All Him-He gets All the Glory.
From beginning to End-End to beginning.

Right hand of God-idom for strenght.
That would be Yeshua-without His word-no substance to have faith in.

//It's all a metaphor. God doesn't have hands.
---ger.toshav on 8/12/10//

Ah...that laugh felt great!
blessings to you.
---char on 8/13/10


Ernest 1 insists the expression 'I Am' must be used in both John 8:58 and Exodus 3:14. But do both texts express the same thought?

No, because Ex.3:14 in LXX reads, 'Ego eimi ho Ohn', 'I am the Being.' This is different from the simple use of the words 'ego eimi' at John 8:58. The verb 'eimi', at John 8:58, is in the 'historical present' (ie. it antedates the differentiation into imperfect and aorist), thus Jesus was speaking about himself in relation to Abrahams past.

Says A. T. Robertsons A Grammar of the Greek New Testament, pages 866-869, regarding 'Historical Present,': 'It is common in the LXX,... in the LXX 337 times, 93 historic presents in Matthew, but 162 in John and 151 in Mark. It is rare in the rest of the (NT).'
---David8318 on 8/13/10


It's all a metaphor. God doesn't have hands.
---ger.toshav on 8/12/10


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David,

I know that you are loyal to the Watchtower Society, - such loyalty it does not receive from sincere guys like yourself because of its dishonesty and bias against truth!

However, concerning "ego eimi" - check in the Kingdom Interlinear Translation and the New World translation and tell me if you can find any other place where it is not translated, "I am"?

Just on one page 474 of the KIT(1969 edition) you have "ego eimi" translated FOUR TIMES (John 10:7,9,11,14) in both the KIT and New World (in the margin of the KIT) as I am.
---Ernest_1 on 8/12/10


Jesus standing AT the right hand of his God and Creator confirms scripture showing Jesus' position in relation to God:

'...then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him.' 1 Cor.15:28.

'...because the Father is greater than I am.' John 14:28.

Stephen would no doubt have been present when Holy Spirit was poured out at Pentecost and heard Peter's speech as recorded in Acts chapter 2. Stephen would have agreed with Peter at Acts 2:24:

'But God resurrected him (Jesus) by loosing the pangs of death, because it was not possible for him to continue to be held fast by it.'

Stephen had faith at the point of his own death, that God through Jesus would provide a resurrection.
---David8318 on 8/12/10


The Kingdom Interlinear Jehovah's Witnesses use is the literal Greek translation as compiled by Westcott and Hort- not Jehovah's Witnesses.

Westcott and Hort translate 'ego eimi' at John 8:58 as 'I am'. Jehovah's Witnesses do not believe this to be an accurate rendering of 'ego eimi' adding a footnote in the KIT correcting Westcott and Hort, the footnote which reads:

58. 'I have been'- (ego eimi) after the aorist infinitive clause 'prin Abra-am ge-ne-sthai' and hence properly rendered in the perfect tense. It is not the same as 'ho ohn', meaning 'The Being' or 'The I am' at Exodus 3:14, LXX.

Thus Jehovah's Witnesses translate 'ego eimi' at John 8:58 as 'I have been', and 'ego eimi ho ohn' at Ex.3:14 as 'I am the Being'.
---David8318 on 8/12/10


Ernest 1 evidently does not understand what is said at Exodus 3:14 or John 8:58, and grossly and unfairly misrepresent Jehovah's Witnesses in doing so.

If you look at Ernest 1 comments of 8/10/10 they do show that there is a difference in the wording of Ex.3:14- 'Ego eimi ho ohn', and John 8:58- '...ego eimi'.

Many translators draw the distinction between the 2, not just Jehovah's Witnesses and the NWT.

'Ego eimi ho ohn.' - "I am the Being." Ex.3:14

'...ego eimi.' (following the aorist infinitive clause) - "...I have been." John 8:58.

Thus, rather than being influenced by attachments to false doctrines when translating, Jehovah's Witnesses accurately conform to rules of Greek grammar.
---David8318 on 8/12/10


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Jesus in not only AT God's right hand, He IS the right Hand of God. Not only is He not left but not wrong. He is not left because He was not left, but is with God, being the incarnate Word that did not come back into the bosom of the Father void.
On a side note:
What direction is God facing when Christ is on His right?
---micha9344 on 8/12/10


It's like a parent who defensively protects his or her ugly baby from the stares of curious onlookers :-) What parent wouldn't do so?!
But sometimes it really is an ugly baby. The trinity is Christendom's ugly baby.
---scott on 8/12/10

I can't call faulty teachers/preachers harmless, but in context of the banter here perhaps.
It is a study. The trinity is a hangup for many. I've got some, but this isn't one of em.
There are several ugly babies without scriptural fathers in the doctrines of today. But, Bereans will search em out, as you pointed out above. Christ can't fail. The Lost Sheep have & will be found. Matt 15:24
---Trav on 8/12/10


"He has to win..." Trav

Warwick is harmless. And I do appreciate his zeal.

In the end people will decide for themselves if some of his wild assertions can be supported scripturally or not. Of course I've not hesitated to share my opinion.

It's fascinating to watch how people (not just Warwick) approach a discussion of deeply held theological views. When pressed or questioned, rather than an objective examination of the text, defenses go up and usually personal attacks follow.

It's like a parent who defensively protects his or her ugly baby from the stares of curious onlookers :-) What parent wouldn't do so?! But sometimes it really is an ugly baby. The trinity is Christendom's ugly baby.
---scott on 8/12/10


Warwick,

Clearly in your eager attempt to disagree you have never actually read my comments on this topic.

Remember how you argued an inaccurate understanding of a Hebrew word for sometime and then a year later said you were just kidding? ---scott on 8/11/10

Always consider warwick calls himself preacher. He has to win....to lose ground means he has lead his goats/sheep in error for years. They read his blogs, surely braggs about his conquests like he does other worldly things, to impress the humble and meek. Political manuever, is to let the memory fade before revisiting an old issue.
Matthew 23:12
And whosoever shall exalt himself shall be abased, and he that shall humble himself shall be exalted.
---Trav on 8/12/10


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Agreement to Warwicks' point.
The Word of Elohyim in flesh-title and name is given-because the Word of Elohyim is completely equal.
Yeshua is not merely a man speaking as a respentative for the Father-He is the Word of Elohyim (Christ)that was spoken out-from the beginning-housed in flesh.
Christ-Immanuel is eternal.

My understanding in reference to Acts 7:55
...Jesus standing (ON-ek)) the right hand of God...

Right Hand of God-His strenght.
Idiom-by His own power.
(ON)-Greek word is ek-meaning [out from]denotes motion from the interior-Used of time, place, and origin.
The Word proceed from the mouth of Elohyim[power]The Word is His Strenght,power and authority-The Word is Christ-the alpha and Omega-Eternal.
---char on 8/12/10


Warwick,

Clearly in your eager attempt to disagree you have never actually read my comments on this topic.

Examine any (or every) comment that I have made regarding Elohim as a title.

You have asserted that sharing titles is an indication of equality. That is false from a scriptural and logical perspective. Jehovah, Moses and the angels share this title, yet there is certainly only one Jehovah.

Find one post where I have, for a moment, suggested that Moses is Jehovah.

This topic is about 'titles' alone, and their relative nature.

Remember how you argued an inaccurate understanding of a Hebrew word for sometime and then a year later said you were just kidding? Yeah, this is a little like that.
---scott on 8/11/10


"No David, identical titles means they are one and the same."
Warwick on 8/6/10


So is this statement true or false?

Take your time...
---scott on 8/11/10


Scott, Jehovah did not call Moses 'Jehovah' or any of the exclusive names of God. He called Moses 'god' 'elohiym' which (as we know Moses was not eternal God) means he was but a man, God's representative, a selected judge. There were many. He was a 'god' as per John 10:34 and Psalm 82:6.

A straight question which requires a straight answer: Were these men called 'gods' ever referred to as the Creator, the Redeemer, the Alpha and the Omega, the I am, the God-Jehovah?

In reality Cliff's relevation of the corruption of the Watchtower Society and how it destroys families is far better contradiction of your truth than anything I have written.

I will be away for a few days but I am sure this will continue on my return.
---Warwick on 8/11/10


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That you, an intelligent man would propose such obvious nonsense is amazing. That you would continue to defend such nonsense against the evidence of Scripture, grammar and logic is even more amazing.
---Warwick on 8/11/10

Don't get too worked up straining at the gnat here.
I've never seen mr amazing epitome of intelligence above admit that GOD was married either. Which throws a whole new concept of relationship into the doctrine mix.
Moses relationship was so close that Mr epitome doesn't realize what Moses can/could do,titled or not....as GOD's rep.
---Trav on 8/11/10


"Twisted the words of Scripture" Exodus 7:1 - MarkV

Careful. Look at the Hebrew my accusatory friend.

My comment has nothing to do with the English language (or any language for that matter) other than Hebrew.

There is no Biblical Hebrew word for "a". And the Hebrew word for "as" does not appear in the Hebrew text of Ex 7:1.

So once again, your comments are unfounded...unless you believe that the OT was written in English (?)

"See, I have made thee God to Pharaoh, and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." Ex 7:1 Darby

"I have appointed thee the God of Pharao: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." Douay-Rheims Bible
---scott on 8/11/10


"God "gave" the authority to Moses." Char

Agreed!

Moses was only "God" in the relative sense that he was acting as Jehovah's representative, for a particular period of time. And he only possessed that authority because it was given to him by Jehovah for a purpose.

It wasn't as if he was "God' in the basket when his mother, Jochebed, put him into the Nile. Nor was he "God" any time before or after his dealings with Pharaoh. Through it all, in reality, he was always just an imperfect man.

The 'title' (when applied to anyone) has relative meaning based on the context. The title 'Elohim' is biblically applied to Jehovah, Moses and angels for very different reasons.
---scott on 8/11/10


The Word of God-equal to God.

Yeshua-Immanuel is the Word of Elohyim in Flesh.
The Authoriy-power and Strenght spoken and in Flesh-Yeshua-Christ.

His Word in flesh is His power in flesh-authoriy in flesh-strenght in flesh.
Flesh-ceased and was resurrected-the Word never ceased-Christ is eternal.
Thomas bearwitness to the Word spoken and fulfilled Ex34:5-6/Jn22:25-31
The Word from Beginning to End-foretold the End from the Beginnin.
Flesh raised from the dead-first born of the dead-Acts 13:29-34,Col 1:15-29,Rom8:29,Rev 1:5
End of One-Beginning of Another-creature
New Man-In Christ-Alepha and Omega.
---char on 8/11/10


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Encouragement:Believers-
The Word of God to mankind is inspired down to each letter.
His is aleph to Tav-alepha and Omega.Rev1:8-11,21:6,22:13
Beginning and End-Spoken from End to Beginning.Gen 1:1,Is 46:10,Jn1:1
He has given us each letter in definition which defines who His is within each context of scripture-this is lost in some translations.
Seek and you will find it-the door to eternal life (Qdm-Immanuel) is open to you.
Mt:7:7,Lk 11:9
Seek-knock while the door is open.
Rev3:20-22
---char on 8/11/10


Scott, it shows how indoctrinated and desperate you are that you would imagine Jehovah made Moses Jehovah!

One by one your claims are being shown as baseless. You referred to Psalm 82:6 where Jehovah calls mortal men 'gods' 'elohiym' trying to show that this means Jesus did not claim to be Almighty God. As anyone can see it means the opposite of what you claim.

Can the 'god's referred to in Exoduc 7:1 or John 10:34 honestly claim to be the Creator, the Redeemer or the Alpha and the Omega?

That you, an intelligent man would propose such obvious nonsense is amazing. That you would continue to defend such nonsense against the evidence of Scripture, grammar and logic is even more amazing.
---Warwick on 8/11/10


Scott, moses does not share any title with Jehovah. Jehovah was making Moses His representative and judge, His representative, as He did for the countless other 'elohiym', 'gods.' Therefore Moses only shared a title with the other 'elohiym' spoken of by Jesus at John 10:34, and Jehovah at Psalm 82:6.

These mortal men being called 'gods' are not called the Creator, the Redeemer, the Alpha and the Omega as is Jesus, and Jehovah. "As Jesus says I am the Alpha and the Omega" and "I and the Father are one." Being called by the same exclusive titles, the definite article, they are indeed "one' as no others can be one. The 'gods' may possibly be one in purpose, but they are not in essence one, but many.
---Warwick on 8/11/10


amen, char, ernest, and trav (8/11)

hang in there, warwick!
---aka on 8/11/10


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Scott, again you are using the New World Translation to make your points and they have already twisted the words of Scripture. For Exodus 7:1 does not state that God made Moses God, but "I have made you as a god" and another translation says, "I have made you a god" in both cases the word is to be understood as a man in a position like a god. The word "Elohim" has singular and plural meanings. Depending on the context. You are arguing with a false Bible. As I said before they either removed words or added new words to rob Jesus Christ of His deity. They did not remove all things which I believe they will later, when they revise the N.W.T. again.
---MarkV. on 8/11/10


FYI:
elohiym is the plural form of elo'ah used frequently as a proper name for Yahweh-creator of heaven and earth.
The hebrew word 'el' is one of strenght and authority----"mighty one" can be applied to God or other gods.'El'-first letter is eleph-represent Strenght.Second letter is lamed(L)pictorgraph a staff representing Authority.
The "power and authority" of Yahweh can be passed on to others---

This is referrenced in Ex 7:1
And Yahweh said unto Moses,"see,I have given you Elohiym for Pharaoh:and Araon brother will be your prophet."

God "gave" the authority to Moses.
represented by the 'staff' moses carried.
Aaron-Word of Elohiym spoken-power with authoriy.
Ex 4:2-3
---char on 8/11/10


"Moses is not being called God." Warwick

This is not true, and better yet, the Almighty does 'the calling'. Who spoke the words "I will make you God to Pharaoh"? Ex 7:1

"He is falible, sinful, mortal man."

Absolutely, never suggested otherwise and the point exactly.

If a 'fallible, sinful, mortal man' can share the same exact title (Elohim) as the Almighty Creator, obviously the 'title' (my entire point from the beginning) can be used in a relative or qualitative way. Sharing the same 'title' does not automatically make those individuals equal or he same. (Your claim).
---scott on 8/11/10


Moses is not being called God, as he is falible, sinful, mortal man. God is not made, but eternal.
---Warwick on 8/10/10

But,close as it gets in this country of earth.
Exodus 20:19
And they said unto Moses, Speak thou with us, and we will hear: but let not God speak with us, lest we die.
Acts 7:37
This is that Moses, which said unto the children of Israel, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me, him shall ye hear.
Deuteronomy 27:9
And Moses and the priests the Levites spake unto all Israel, saying, Take heed, and hearken, O Israel, this day thou art become the people of the LORD thy God.
---Trav on 8/11/10


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Says the Lord God Jesus: "To the person who overcomes will I grant to sit with me on my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with Father of me on his throne." Revelation 3:21.
---Eloy on 8/11/10


Scott regarding Jesus comments (John 10:34) you quoted "Is it not written in your law, [citing Ps 82:6] I said: - 'You are gods'?" Contrary to your claim 'gods' in this Psalm is 'elohiym', there applied to mortal men, God's representatives. God reminded them they were 'mere men.' You imagine this Psalm demonstrates Jesus was not claiming to be 'the God-Ho Theos.' It doesn't, just the opposite. Jesus (like Jehovah Psalm 82:6) was reminding these mortal'gods' that they were mere men, answerable to God and He was standing before them!

Regarding Exodus 7:1 the Lord said He had made Moses 'elohiym' to Pharoah, His representative. Moses is not being called God, as he is falible, sinful, mortal man. God is not made, but eternal.
---Warwick on 8/10/10


I have checked up on the references Warwick gave and he is correct:

Exodus 3:14 footnotes in the 1984 NWT does state Gr. "ego eimi ho on".

John 8:58 in the 1969 and 1985 KIT ed. translates the Gr "ego eimi" as "I am".

One needs to use the Kingdom Interlinear Translation repeatedly to check on the NWT because it is a biased translation which adds, subtracts and distorts the scriptures.
---Ernest_1 on 8/10/10


Jesus could speak with the authority of God because He was Himself----fully God. Phil. 2:9-11>>>"That at the name of Jesus that every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth, and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord". He knew people's thoughts [Mark 2:8], [Omniscience of Jesus]. He knew those that did not believe. Disciples>>>"Now we know that You know ALL THINGS" [John 16:30]. "What sort of man is this, that even winds and sea obey Him"? [Matt. 8:27] It was the authority of Jesus himself to which the winds and the waves were subject. Yes, Jesus is God. Sitting at the right hand of God. He continually uphold the universe by His word of Power", something which only God could do.
---catherine on 8/10/10


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Standing/sitting at the right hand of God is a term which conveys Jesus is in the position of power and equality. As explained on numerous occasions this found its origin in ancient tradition. If a visiting king was considered an equal the inviting king would place the visiting king at his right hand to show the people their king accepted the visitor as his equal in status.

That we should see Jesus seated at the right hand of God is only consistent with what Scripture says of Him. Scripture gives Him the identical titles it gives Almighty God. They are therefore one and the same God.

Jesus claimed to be God and the Jews condemned Him to death for it.
---Warwick on 8/10/10


Warwick, Ex 3:14 (1)
Since it appears that you are unwilling or unequipped to discuss the Hebrew and Greek of Ex 3:14 and John 8:58 (no doubt why you've pulled out the French?) ...(You were caught dishonestly misrepresenting their 'footnotes' from the very beginning) .... many non-Witness translators agree with them. ---scott on 8/10/10

Not taking sides, here but, you make a point/observation that is found with most doctrine protectors. More especially preacher types/non Berean, will avoid/veer from anything not supporting their unwitnessed doctrines. You appear to be open to truth where ever it is found. Some are not and actually make stronger dealing with them.
---Trav on 8/10/10


Clearly, seeing Christ at God's right hand is an indication that he isn't the Almighty himself.
How does God stand at his own right hand?
---scott on 8/10/10

Scott, he does this easily. Are you your fathers son an extension of heritage?
Not considered perhaps is the human form YAHSHUA took.
The human/spirit form of GOD is standing at the right hand of GOD. If not for this human form we would have no intercessor/high priest to pray to and through. In human form, dying freeing Israel in widowhood for remarriage.....

GOD as GOD created superpowered Angels....yet we have a transition problem with spiritualized Humans. Probably because we experience it infrequently.
---Trav on 8/10/10


Clearly, seeing Christ at God's right hand is an indication that he isn't the Almighty himself.

How does God stand at his own right hand?
---scott on 8/10/10


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So Stephen could see the glory of "God", and [or even] Jesus standing on the right hand of God. Note: Verse 59: They went on stoning Stephen, oh my God. What a man of God, yes. As he called on the Lord and said, "Lord Jesus, receive my spirit"! Acts 9: 16>>> "For I will show him how much he must suffer for my name's sake". Yes!
---catherine on 8/9/10


Places in The Bible where it says, right hand.
It Is a designation of power & authority.
---Lawrence on 8/9/10


When it talks about Jesus at the right hand of God it's not talking about a real hand it's talking about power as God is a spirte and he has no hands
---Betty on 3/30/08


It is said that Jesus will remain seated at the right hand of the Father until the trumpet sounds and the dead in Christ are raised to life. Any other christ is a false christ.
---Marcia on 8/3/07


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I smile reading many of the deep interpretations. Don't think so hard people.... Jesus stood becuase he was seeing his faithful servant Stephen standing up for him (Jesus) and about to be stoned. The event is to show us that Jesus loves us soooooo much.
---Andy on 8/3/07


Ephesians 1:21 far above all rule and authority and power and lordship [or, dominion] and every name having been named, not only in this age, _but_ also in the one coming.
Ephesians 1:22 And He put all things in subjection under His feet and gave Him [to be] head over all [things pertaining] to the Assembly [or, Church, and throughout epistle],
Ephesians 1:23 which is His body, the fullness of the One filling all in all. (analytical literal translation)
---Z-Pha3394 on 5/12/07


From the original Greek it reads: "But being under full Holy Spirit, looked intently into the heaven seeing glorious God, and Jesus being of right of God, and spoke, Here, view them, heavens opened and the Son of man being of right of God."
---Eloy on 5/27/06


Thanks, you all, I appreciate your thoughts and your insightful answers. As was said, this is not a doctrinal question, just a thoughtful one. I am not upset in any way, I guess I am kind of a deep thinker and am hungry for all I can get from the Lord. Love and grace to you all. (If you haven't figured it out, I am from the south [YA'LL] HA!)
---Debbie on 5/26/06


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Donna is right about another thing. Jesus can be everywhere he wants at the same time, sitting and standing at the same time.
---Okebaram on 5/26/06


Debbie, the Holy Spirit is the one who revealed the answer to me. Since He had already revealed it to me before, why should I ask a second time.
---Okebaram on 5/26/06


The trinity is the mystery of God, it is an antinomy: Since there is only one Omnipresent God (I John 5:20; Jude 25), how then is Jesus sitting at the righthand of everywhere? and to sit down at his own right hand, is he beside himself? Jesus is called both, the Son and the Father, the Shepherd and the Lamb, God and man, the son of David and the Lord of David, the Master and the Servant, the Creator and the created. The trinity can be symbolized as a triangle, 3 different points, yet having only one form.
---Eloy on 5/26/06


The trinity is the mystery of God, it is an antinomy: Since there is only one Omnipresent God (I John 5:20; Jude 25), how then is Jesus sitting at the righthand of everywhere? and to sit down at his own right hand, is he beside himself? Jesus is called both, the Son and the Father, the Shepherd and the Lamb, God and man, the son of David and the Lord of David, the Master and the Servant, the Creator and the created. The trinity can be symbolized as a triangle, 3 different points, yet having only one form.
---Eloy on 5/26/06


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Debbie-- Often the Holy Spirit will enliven a particular passage you read to show you truth in a unique way. It's something just for you. Something He has chosen to appeal to, or meet the needs of, you as an individual. Even if you explain it to others, it will not have the same power for them. So don't be disturbed if others don't take from these verses the same things that you did. These are not doctrinal issues, just spiritual insights.
---Donna2277 on 5/25/06


My husband (a minister) says that HE believes it was because Jesus was watching what was happening to his beloved servant and he was just about to ask the Father "C'mon Father, let me go down there and teach those guys a lesson, just for a few minutes, pleeeeeease?!" :) Or....maybe he stood up to get ready to personally welcome Steven into his arms
---T.S. on 5/25/06


I'm not sure...is this supposed to present some kind of problem? Jesus is God. He can be anywhere He wants at any time.
---Donna2277 on 5/25/06


#3 What would have been the harm, where would it led you astray into wrong doctrine, if Jesus had been standing, hoping against hope, that His own people would have accepted Him as Savior. Yes, it would have made a great difference to us, but God knew it wasn't going to happen. Yet, why is it so hard for anyone to see that He may of hoped for it and was standing for that reason. Christ loved His people and wanted them to accept Him, it broke His heart that they rejected Him.
---Debbie on 5/25/06


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#2 WE must be open to the Spirit because we have not begun to touch the depths of the Word and its meaning. Who knows the mind of God? Only through the Holy Spirit can we ever hope to understand what the Word is actually saying. By asking this question, I was hoping to get some sincere seekers of answers through the Word and Spirit. Sound Spiritual answers never come from the knowledge of the head but of the heart.
---Debbie on 5/25/06


I wonder how many prayed about this question before saying no. How many saught the Holy Spirit for answer? You may say, I don't have to seek an answer, I know the answer. How do you know, who told you. It troubles me that know one said "I don't know, but I will pray." It troubles me that there could be many who would not accept a revealed Truth just because it doesn't line up with their doctrine, not Bible doctrine, but their own personal beliefs.
---Debbie on 5/25/06


Debbie... No.
---Okebaram on 5/25/06


"Jesus was standing to welcome Stephen to his heavenly home. To greet someone you don't sit down!" (helen)
Yep! All said.
---Okebaram on 5/25/06


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Jesus was standing to welcome Stephen to his heavenly home. To greet someone you don't sit down!
---Helen_5378 on 5/25/06


This is the only time the Bible that Jesus is depicted as standing. If you were sitting for 2000 years in a rocking chair and one time you stood up, would You still consider it wrong for me to refer to you as sitting in a rocking chair. Jesus IS setting at the right hand of God right now. And he did stand up when this event took place.
---mima on 5/25/06


It is said many places in Scripture that Jesus came to the Jew first and then the Gentiles. He came to His own and His own received Him not, John 1:11. Could it be that the Jews were given a last chance to receive Him and had they received Him at Stephen's stoning (He was standing showing He was ready to come back at that point) , He would have come back in His glory then. As we know, that didn't happen, and we see Him seated there after waiting for the time to come back for His people.
---Debbie on 5/25/06


It shows Jesus position in the devinne family of God.

In this portion of Acts, Luke is writing about accounts that were related to him by others, not events he has personally observed as an eye witness. We know that Luke has problems in his gospel with technical details [sequence of events, where events occurred and who was there] when compared Matthew's and John's gospels; and these deficiencies will carry over into Acts but there is nothing to compare them to.
---notlaw99 on 5/25/06


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Visions are given in terms that the visionary can understand and express.

To try to put earthly categories such as left/right or sit/stand or up/down and make them fit into the way things are in heaven (which is the only true reality) is foolish.
---Jack on 5/25/06


Part 2. After Paul's conversion Jesus sat down (which denotes remaining in an immovable, settled, and established position) until His enemies are made His footstool. When He will again rise and come again to gather together those that trusted in His salvation and remained faithful, and to execute the great day of His wrath.
---josef on 5/25/06


Part 1. Although Jesus had finished the work of salvation and abides in the complete authority and power of the Father, He remained standing (denoting an upright and active position) because there remained one other task that in His wisdom He decided to handle personally. The conversion of Paul, His chosen vessel to declare His authority in the presence of those who had no true knowledge of The living God.
---josef on 5/25/06


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