ChristiaNet MallWorld's Largest Christian MallChristian BlogsFree Bible QuizzesFree Ecards and Free Greeting CardsLoans, Debt, Business and Insurance Articles

Original Hebrew Or Greek

Many words or passages can take on a new depth of meaning once we look at it in the original Hebrew or Greek. Would anyone care to share some examples of discoveries you have made?

Join Our Free Penpals and Take The Bible History Quiz
 ---Bruce5656 on 11/30/06
     Helpful Blog Vote (11)

Reply to this BlogPost a New Blog


Eph 1:3 Blessed by the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:

Blessed = eulogetos. We get the word eulogy from this same greek word. It means "to speak well of".

Paul is telling us to speak well of our God that has spoken well of us through Christ Jesus.

What a great God!
---trey on 9/23/07

John 3:13, lit.Gk: "And no one eternally stepped (Gk: anabebiken) in heaven except he out of heaven came down, the Son of man who from being in the heaven." This means that Jesus always (forever) walked in heaven, it does not mean that noone went to heaven as many English translations have incorrectly translated. And when Jesus said this, Scripture had already revealed that Henoch and Elijah were in heaven.
---Eloy on 9/23/07

yes and the word for justification is actaully more like righteousifying but there was no English translation. Its really a verb, and often belief or believing should be 'faithing' a verb - its so beautiful with its original meaning.

any bible scholars out there have some other good ones
---Andrea on 9/23/07

Recently our church had a dymanic speaker who said the work SEEK in the original meant to crave. So he talked about we should crave God as opposed to just seeking Him through church going and bible reading.
---Virginia on 9/22/07

Daniel, Bruce, what happened to you, where are you?
---Cindy on 6/3/07

I would like to find out what a few words mean in the Hebrew or Greek, Bruce would you care to share? I don't know how to look them up. What does "delight" mean? What does "afflict" mean? What does "vengence" mean? Thank you. Appreciate your help.
---Donna9759 on 6/1/07

[Pt.4] ONLY ONCE (we call those 'hapax legomena'); not in the Septuagint (Greek translation of the OT) nor in any commercial or even pagan literature and the surrounding context is not very clear, we must be honest and say we can't know for sure what it really means. Those are the passages that false prophets often major in; sometimes whole doctrines of a 'cult group' are based on them! [Well, I've had way too little sleep, so will have to end this! Any questions?]
---danie9374 on 12/6/06

[Pt.3] for Believers should be their citations of all the SCRIPTURE passages where the word has been used; along with explaining why they believe it doesn't mean the same thing in all of them (if that's the case). Even though you'll likely be reading them only in English translations, the CONTEXT (general 'drift'; meaning) of each chapter or so surrounding a handful or more of passages is near impossible to be so far off that you miss the idea completely. However, when some term occurs [cont.]
---danie9374 on 12/6/06

[Pt.2] (not just Hebrew) or those found in all sorts of Greek documents spanning centuries, there's really only one way to know the meaning of a word: From the CONTEXT in which it's used! Of course, most people cannot do that within Greek or Hebrew, but a lexicographer (someone who creates those word books and dictionaries) should provide us with reasonable explanations for why they decided a word had certain meanings and tell us that in our own language. The most important evidence [cont.]
---danie9374 on 12/6/06

[Pt.1] For those who really enjoy 'digging into' God's Word, consider this: How do we know what any 'word' in Scriputre means? Sure you can look one up in some scholar's 'book of words' or Bible dictionary, but how can they really know? Actually in some cases they can't know for sure, and honest scholars will tell you that! Apart from its most basic words, simplest of nouns (man, woman, son, etc.), pronouns (he, she), and so forth which we find being used the same way in all Semitic languages [cont.]
---danie9374 on 12/6/06

((1)) Donna: 'Vengeance' is much easier (esp. when compared to 'delight') to comment on. This English word translates only one Hebrew root, NQM, 38 times in the AV(KJV) as found in various forms of 'nAqam'(4), 'nAqAm'(15), 'neqAmAh'(19) Strong's Ref.#s 5358-60, but these three words are also translated in other AV passages as: [avenge-18, revenge-4, take-4, avenger-2, punished-2, surely-1]; [quarrel-1, avenge-1] and [avenge-4, revenge-3, avenged-1] respectively. In the NT of the AV, [cont.]
---danie9374 on 12/4/06

((2)) vengeance was not only used to translate 'ekdikEsis' (ekdikhsiV; Strong's# 1557) in Lk.21:22; Rom.12:19; 2Th.1:8; Heb.10:30 (NASB: retribution) and 'orgE' (orgh; Strong's# 3709) in Rom.3:5 (NASB: wrath), but also (incorrectly in my opinion) 'dikE' (dikh; Strong's# 1349) in Acts 28:4 (NASB: justice) and Jude 1:7 (NASB: punishment). For the NT, Vine's Expository Dictionary is sometimes still helpful.
---danie9374 on 12/4/06

Daniel, you did a great job in answering. I know many will not care at all to read what you said, it is normal reactions when someone is explaining things about God they just don't want to hear are even know. You did a great job Daniel with your explanations. Blessings
---lisa on 12/4/06

Thank you for that excellent explaination!
---Bruce5656 on 12/4/06

[*4*] 4574, 4853a, 4885, 5276, 5282, 5730a, 5965, 6026-7, 7381a, 7521-2, 7797, 8056-7, 8173b, 8191, 8378 and 8588; plus one Greek word: 2308. Though the results are similar for the AV, the exact usages vary; e.g., the AV used 'pleasant' in many verses where NASB has 'delight'. We could ask: What Hebrew word is most often translated as 'delight*'? That would be 'chAphets' (02654a) for both AV and NASB which has: delight-15, delighted-7, delights-8 and have...delight-2 (total=32); far less than 105, [cont.]
---danie9374 on 12/3/06

[*5*] but it's also translated as: desire-9, desired-4, desires-5, favors-1, have any pleasure-1, have...pleasure-1, pleased-6, pleases-7, take pleasure-1, take...pleasure-2, wish-2, wished-1, wishes-1. My main point in showing all those statistics is this: Not not only are there many different Hebrew and Greek words that use the same English word in translations, but the same exact original word used throughout Scripture has often been translated by many different English words! [cont.]
---danie9374 on 12/3/06

Read These Insightful Articles About Stocks

[*6*] It's an impossibly idealistic (or downright nonsensical) goal to think you'll be able to find one English word that can be substituted for every Hebrew and Greek word (1-to-1 correspondence) in Scripture. Why? Because both those languages, like English, not only have many words which mean different things, depending upon the context, but are often 'mapped' to completely different sets of meanings when compared to the English word a translator chooses; [cont.]
---danie9374 on 12/3/06

[*7*] except for the one meaning they have in common in that particular passage's context. Of course, all these languages have 'synonyms' too, which leads to much variation between the words chosen by one translator vs. those of another; and when you consider 'idioms' and how the usage of some words have completely changed over time, you can begin to see why our English versions appear to be so very different; even when based upon the same exact text. ;-) One tool I really like is TWOT, [cont.]
---danie9374 on 12/3/06

[*8*] the Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament, ed. by R. Laird Harris (Moody Press, 1980, 2vols.), because it groups all the significant Hebrew words from the same 'root words' together, then briefly comments on most (if not all) of their occurrances in Scripture. For those who aren't familiar with Hebrew, you must use the Strong's# to TWOT entry number Index in the back.
---danie9374 on 12/3/06

Hebrew was spoken in our house & in Temple- conversational Hebrew & Torah/Ot in Hebrew no aramaic most Jews do not speak it well but talk Yiddish etc. the "Book" is always read in Hebrew. I have a Jewish Bible which took the Greek NT turned it to Hebrew thats a change huh? I would be more then happy to help if my memory serves me I am rusty- I spoke it only to my Papa & kids in class,teachers & Shabbat but not since his death 5yrs ago I have only used Eng. except in prayers/songs.
---Jeanne on 12/3/06

Read These Insightful Articles About Diabetes

[*1*] Donna(and Bruce); looked up 'delight' and boy can you pick 'em as some may say, because it's used to translate MANY different Hebrew words! But I'll attempt to provide an adequate basis for how you can pursue this study: First, you need a tool which can show you what the original Hebrew and Greek words are for the Bible you use. I have exhaustive concordances for many versions which give the associated Strong's Ref.#s which you can then use to look them up in other Ref. books as well. [Cont.]
---danie9374 on 12/3/06

[*2*] Usually, as Bruce pointed out, when you want to know about a word in the Bible you already have a certain verse in mind, you look up the original word used in that verse, then find out how that ONE original word is used everywhere in Scripture! UNLESS what you really want to know is how many times and where a particular version's translators decided to use the same English word; which is a study of translating rather than a word study in the original languages. [Cont.]
---danie9374 on 12/3/06

[*3*] For example, in most copies of the AV(KJV), we have (never forget to look up all grammatical forms; nouns, verbs, plurals, etc.): delight-51, delighted-12, delightest-1, delighteth-14, delights-6, delightsome-1; total=85 times, but in the NASB(1995) you'll find: delight-74, delighted-9, delightful-7, delighting-1, delights-14; total=105. However, this single English word, was used in translating the following 25 Hebrew words (Strong's Ref.#s) in the NASB: 2530, 2654a, 2655-6, 2896a, 4263a, [cont.]
---danie9374 on 12/3/06

\2\ converse with a Syrophoenician Gentile woman (Mark 7:24-30) and possibly others in Tyre and Sidon (v.31) if He didn't speak Greek? I'm *not* saying He never used Aramaic or Hebrew, but on many occasions He had to be using Greek; such as when He spoke with Romans (a Centurion in Matt.8:5 ff. and Pilate in Jn.18:33 ff). Knowing this and the culture of Israel at that time, it's quite possible He gave just as many 'sermons' in Greek as He presumably did in Aramaic.
---danie9374 on 12/3/06

Send a Free Marriage Tract

\1\ Toby, have you ever heard of the Septuagint (LXX; translation of Hebrew Scriptures into Greek)? It was completed roughly 200 years before the Messiah came to earth, and was spread all over the Roman empire and beyond by Jesus' time. Why? Not just for Gentiles to read, but because almost all Jews living outside Israel no longer spoke Hebrew! Thus Paul could address both Jews and Gentiles using Greek during his travels. Furthermore, how do you think Jesus Himself was able to [cont.]
---danie9374 on 12/3/06

Could you be more specific? There are 8 different words translated "afflict" in the OT for example. If I knew what verse you are thinking of it woud be better.
---Bruce5656 on 12/2/06

I have never heard that the New testament was ever written in Hebrew. The reasons they wrote in Greek was it was a common language Every Jew knew Greek because they had several years under greek rule. and most of the chruches outside of Jerusalem spoke greek. I don't think much of the original NT was written in Hebrew.
---Jared on 12/2/06

During the time of the Apostles Greek was the language of trade and generally understood by most in the Middle East. All the gospels were written orginally in Greek except perhaps for Matthew (Aramaic). Hebrew was disappearing during those times and becoming a lost language. This is verified from the early church fathers.
---lee1538 on 12/2/06

Read These Insightful Articles About Depression

[1] Toby you're way off in your belief that none of the New Testament (N/Covenant), was originally written in Greek! All of Luke and Acts were definitely first written in Greek, because Luke, a Greek speaking Gentile-convert, prob. from Antioch, was writing to one Theophilus; who was likely a Roman magistrate or possibly officer (Acts 1:1; Luke 1:3 and cf. the title 'most excellent' used by Luke to how Paul addresses Felix in Ac.23:26; 24:3 and Festus Ac.26:25). [Cont.]
---danie9374 on 12/2/06

[2] Luke first joined Paul at Troas (implied by 'we' in Ac.16:10) and if you read the context surrounding Col.4:14; 2Tim.4:11 and Phlm.1:24, you'll find more about him. Paul had no problems speaking Greek because it was at least one of, if not his first native language, having grown up in Tarsus and being a Roman citizen! Do you really think Paul's epistles to assemblies full of Greek speaking Gentile converts (e.g., the Corinthians, Ephesians, Philippians, etc.) were first written in Hebrew?!
---danie9374 on 12/2/06

I thought it strange that the N/C was translated from Greek, when most spoke Hebrew of Aramaic, then I was shown that the orig was in Hebrew and the N/C had been changed to Greek then latin and English. Ex23:13 Do not mention the name of other mighty ones (Elohiym), nor let them be heard from your mouth. In N/C there are many Greek false diety words used in every day talk which Ex23:13 is talking about. Many names used in religion are the names of pagan gods
---Toby on 12/2/06

John chapter 5 and I had a word get lodged in my thinker.

Probatikos "sheep gate" or as the KJV rendered it sheep market. What I learned from it is that it's quite possible that John's gospel was written before the destruction of Jerusalem because he spoke of it as if it were still there.

Then I thought that it's also true that we sometimes speak of things that were as though they still are because that's the way we remember it.

I walked around saying probatikos for weeks.
---Pharisee on 11/30/06

Read These Insightful Articles About Bible Study

When I was in school I wrote a paper on the words tanslated as light in the english language, this really opened my eyes was ment by light and darkness as used in John's Gospel. I'm not a greek or hebrew scholar by any means, but sometimes understanding what the ancient usages of the words are can really help.
---Jared on 11/30/06

Copyright© 2017 ChristiaNet®. All Rights Reserved.