ChristiaNet MallWorld's Largest Christian MallChristian BlogsFree Bible QuizzesFree Ecards and Free Greeting CardsLoans, Debt, Business and Insurance Articles

Paul Teach A Kingdom Gospel

Did Paul ever teach a Kingdom Gospel?

Join Our Free Penpals and Take The Who Is Paul Bible Quiz
 ---micha8489 on 1/14/11
     Helpful Blog Vote (2)

Reply to this BlogPost a New Blog



The point Paul makes is, we now know Christ in a different way.
Peter and the eleven knew Him as the King of the Kingdom to reign on earth, we know Him (the same Person) as the glorified Head of the body (Eph. 1:19-23).
Paul, by the Spirit, indicates a dispensational change has taken place,
when he says: "Wherefore HENCEFORTH know we no man after the flesh: yea,THOUGH WE HAVE KNOWN CHRIST AFTER THE FLESH, Yet NOW HENCEFORTH KNOW WE HIM NO MORE" (2 Cor. 5:16).
---michael_e on 3/6/11


Whenever you speak to a person, if your real desire is that they TRULY understand (you speak cleary in no uncertain terms), then you LOVE the truth, not "LIKE" the truth....THEN you can BE SAVED.

2 Thessalonians 2:10
"they refused to love the truth and so be saved".

If you only "like" the truth, you will not accept that Paul preached the TRUE "kingdom Gospel". At the "Incident at Antioch" (around 50 A.D., look it up at wikpedia,...Acts 11:26), the Hebrew 'Jesus followers' continued to follow Mosaic law.

Paul's devotion to Jesus was always called "THE WAY".

Jesus characterized Peter in this manner...
"you are not on the side of God" Mark 8:33
---more_excellent_way on 2/23/11


Paul bring us the gospel of the grace of God uses the word grace at least 85 times
---michael_e on 2/1/11


Paul uses the word 'kingdom' at least 14 times in his letters. So you decide.
---John.usa on 1/27/11


Cluny,
I both agree and disagree with you.

While I don't believe they are "distinct", as in "not in the least the same", they are in fact different.

With all the derivatives, phileo is probably best expressed as "love like I love myself"

Agape denotes affection, actively. Probably best expressed as "love with all I have"

The reason they are used interchangeably is that when expressing Christian love, both are applicable.

But, unless I've misseed something, we are never instructed to phileo unbelievers or the world, only agape.
---James_L on 1/28/11




Gospel of the kingdom
The message preached first by John Baptist, then the Lord Jesus Christ, then the 12 apostles.

Water baptism for entrance into the kingdom

Repentance - change their thinking about who the Lord Jesus Christ was

A literal, visible, earthly, Davidic Kingdom with Christ sitting on the his throne in Jerusalem.

fulfillment of the promises made unto the patriarchal fathers
---michael_e on 1/28/11


\\Like "agape" and "phileo" both are translated as "love", but each expressing a different type.\\

This is a popular myth, but the actual use of the words in Ancient Greek doesn't support it.

Agape, fileo, and eros are all used more or less interchangeably.

The only word that has a particular meaning is STORGI, which negative adjectival form is used in one of the Letters of St. Peter.
---Cluny on 1/27/11


\\Still got a question for you.
How was Peter, or any other man going to baptise or place anybody INTO a name?\\
---michael_e on 1/27/11

no more answers for you until you show where you see "devout" in reference to Lydia, since you're the one who has asserted that on a least a half dozen occasions.

And not until you demonstrate why half of your scripture references show a Gentile getting baptized, while you maintain that baptism was/is only for Jews.
---James_L on 1/27/11


Gal 3:27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
---micha9344 on 1/27/11


//eulabes" meaning INWARDLY pious - devout//
also meaning, reverencing God, religious
I'm not trying to build a case on any one word, if you remember you brought up the meaning of devout.
Still got a question for you.
How was Peter, or any other man going to baptise or place anybody INTO a name?
---michael_e on 1/27/11




michael e,
you're trying to build a case on the English word "devout".

But in Greek there are different words, and "devout" simply doesn't do them justice.

Like "agape" and "phileo" both are translated as "love", but each expressing a different type.

Same with
"eulabes" meaning INWARDLY pious - devout,
"uesebes" meaning OUTWARDLY observant - devout

Acts 2:5 calls these men "eulabes", the same word used to describe Simeon in the temple (Lk 2:25), the men who buried Stephen's body (Ac 8:2), and Ananias when he laid hands on Paul to receive his sight (Acts 22:12). These are the ONLY times this word is used in the NT.
---James_L on 1/27/11


//Are you ever going to answer that So quit twisting it to suit your fancy.
---James_L on 1/26/11//

Talk about twisting words,
Acts 2:5 there were devout(RELIGIOUS)jews...
And you don't think Lydia was religious?

BTW How was Peter, or any other man going to baptise or place anybody INTO a name?
---michael_e on 1/27/11


\\The verse should read "baptize them INTO the name..."
But it doesn't\\

You're right, sort of. It doesn't read that way in ENGLISH, but it does in Greek.

\\"there were devout Jews.." (Acts 2:5)
Acts 16:14 Lydia, just as devout.\\

Wrong kind of devout, michael e. Acts 2:5 is eulabes, "inwardly pious" the same word used in Luke 2:25 to describe Simeon in the temple when Jesus was presented. That's what these men were. Are you ever going to answer that?

Please show a verse number which says that Lydia was "eulabes". It's not there. Heck, the english word "devout" isn't eve there. So quit twisting it to suit your fancy.
---James_L on 1/26/11


The verse should read "baptize them INTO the name..."
But it doesn't
"there were devout Jews.." (Acts 2:5)
Acts 16:14 Lydia, just as devout.
//Please show where Acts 2 mentions anyone receiving eternal life that day.//
Peter was speaking to the nation of Israel and they still haven't received eternal life as a nation
Acts 3:19 Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, WHEN the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord
Try comparing scripture with scripture
---michael_e on 1/26/11


michael e,

you can assert all want to. But until you explain the scriptures, you're nothing more than a gong. Just making noise.

"baptize them in the name"

where's the water? The verse should read "baptize them INTO the name..."

"there were devout Jews.." (Acts 2:5)

Why don't you try to explain the use of "eulabes" to describe these men?

Please show where Acts 2 mentions anyone receiving eternal life that day.

It's rather convenient that you push, prod, probe, assert, all the way to 75 comments so that you never have to giv e an answer.

Les Feldick would be proud.
---James_L on 1/26/11


//JamesL You're right that Paul never mentioned water baptism as a part of the gospel. Neither did Peter//

Matt.28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them...

Acts 2:5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven.

Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins...
It sounds like Peter was talking about water baptism for Israel.
---michael_e on 1/26/11


Read These Insightful Articles About Interest Rates


Leslie,
"repent" absolutely means "have a change of mind"

"repent" absolutely does not not not mean "turn from sin"

The bible says NOTHING about turning from sin = eternal life
---James_L on 1/19/11


//The Bible says NOTHING about baptism = salvation//
Mk.16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved,..
Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins

//baptism is an outward sign of an inward coversion done in obedience to Christ//

Where do you find this scripture?
---michael_e on 1/19/11


michael e - You are WRONG. The Bible says NOTHING about baptism = salvation - baptism is an outward sign of an inward coversion done in obedience to Christ. Also, repentance is NOT changing your mind about Christ, but turning from your sins. Also, we are NOT free to disobey God's laws - they were FULFILLED by Christ, NOT done away with. What you are teaching is ANOTHER Gospel, NOT Kingdom Gospel.
---Leslie on 1/19/11


Gospel of the kingdom =
The message preached first by John Baptist, then the Lord Jesus Christ, then the 12 apostles. The basic details of this gospel include:
Water baptism for entrance into the kingdom
Repentance i.e. change their thinking about who the Lord Jesus Christ was
A future, literal, visible, earthly, Davidic Kingdom with Christ sitting on the his throne in Jerusalem.
The fulfillment of the promises made unto the patriarchal fathers
This is a works oriented, short account, Mosaic law system
---michael_e on 1/18/11


Read These Insightful Articles About Internet Marketing


Act 13:46 Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles.
--So apparently, the Jews Jesus spoke to and the Jews Paul spoke to received 2 different messages...sounds quite hypocritical unless..
They were the same message spoke different ways...
1Co 9:17-18 For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation [of the gospel] is committed unto me. What is my reward then? [Verily] that, when I preach the gospel, I may make the gospel of Christ without charge, that I abuse not my power in the gospel
---micha9344 on 1/18/11


It's not a safe practice to build doctrine based on the book of Acts alone because it is a transitional book. It is better to view the big picture. Paul was - is - the apostle to the Gentiles. He preached the gospel of the grace of God. He did not preach the gospel of the kingdom. When Paul preached to the Jews he "proved" to them first of all that the Lord Jesus Christ was Messiah. He did not offer them the kingdom but did offer them real time salvation and freedom from the law. Paul did have a ministry of provocation to Israel but he never offered them the kingdom
---michael_e on 1/18/11


When he speaks of God, my God is a one on one personal relationship.
---michael_e on 1/17/11

Well....I felt no different than Paul, David, woman at the well etc, etc.
When the witnesses in scripture testified to "Truth","Good News" I was personally overwhelmed with thanfulness.
Good News is Good news. What is the Good News. Messiah is come to the Lost Sheep of the House of Israel. Paul was overwhelmed as well. Matt 15:24. Aren't you?
---Trav on 1/17/11


Did Paul preach-Jesus Christ resurrected?

The King has His domain.
This is the Kings-Kingdom.

Jesus Christ is the King and Subject of the Word of God Lk24:27,Jn 5:39, the promise seed of the Women Gen3:15
The King and the kingdom unveiled.
Bereshiyth-begining- to End-Revelation(complement of Genesis)

The Resurrection is the Beginning of this Kingdom-unveiled.
Matthew 27:51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom, and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent,
1 Corinthians 15:14 And if Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain, and your faith is also vain.
---char on 1/17/11


Send a Free Fourth of July Ecard


Yes, Paul did preach this. Paul taught Jesus Christ cruified and ressurrected and repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand. Paul then went on to say that if ANYONE preaches a Gospel other than that, let them be CURSED.
---Leslie on 1/17/11


When Paul speaks of my Gospel, he is speaking of the Gospel of grace given to him personally by the risen Christ
Eph 3:2 If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:
When he speaks of God, my God is a one on one personal relationship.
---michael_e on 1/17/11


What do you think Paul means when he uses the phrase"my gospel" in his letters?
---earl on 1/16/11

Gospel means "Good News", "Truth".
The good news was to Israel as Christ states in Matthew. He came to his own (Judah),his own would have him not.
Fufilling all prophecys...(completion verses)Jer 31:31, New Covenant.

Matt 10:6/15:24....to the lost Sheep of the 10 divorced nations of Israel. Parabled in the 10 virgins, 10 coins, 10 servants. Hebrews explains, and Heb 8:8-, reconfirms. Romans reconfirms, Judahs loss was Nth House nations gain. All prophets confirm. All Apostles. Good news,by sign,mark and confirmation of Truth.
---Trav on 1/17/11


What do you think Paul means when he uses the phrase"my God" in his letters?
He must be preaching another god.(sarcasm)
---micha9344 on 1/16/11


Read These Insightful Articles About Life Insurance


Pharisee,
My question in relation to your previous post I just read .
What do you think Paul means when he uses the phrase"my gospel" in his letters?
---earl on 1/16/11


Jesus is our King, and Jesus rules us by means of His own peace in us, in our "hearts" > "And let the peace of God rule in your hearts, to which also you were called in one body, and be thankful." (Colossians 3:15) This peace ruling in our hearts is in the Holy Spirit in us. And Paul says the "kingdom of God is" "righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit", in Romans 14:17. So, God's Kingdom is in us, but elsewhere also, including Jesus on the throne. So, the kingdom of God is not limited to only being in us or only being in future history.
---Bill_willa6989 on 1/16/11


I love the question, it's meant to ask, Did Paul preach a different gosplel. many are trying these day to show that he did, but that's a garbage can teaching.

The fact is everything Paul preached by his own admission came by revelation from God. The questions arise from unregenerate men who have not the power of God to divide the word trying to do so. They cannot reconcile the sayings of Paul and Jesus and so they choose to discount the lesser or say that he had a different gospel.
---Pharisee on 1/15/11


Mima, Think about it a "Kingdom" is a King and subjects, cannot be "inside" you, it is a physical thing.
You can have the spirit or enthusiasm for the Kingdom which is a zeal , but there's no "Kingdom" inside anyone!
---1st_cliff on 1/15/11


Read These Insightful Articles About Make Money


The Kingdom Gospel:

A future, literal, visible, earthly, Davidic Kingdom with Christ sitting on his throne in Jerusalem.

Did Paul ever preach this?
---michael_e on 1/15/11


All the Apostles taught The Same. God gave Apostle Peter The Salvation Plan to the Jewish people First on the day of Pentecost, Acts 2 v 38. God did Not give Apostle James something else to preach or Apostle Paul something diff to preach. Again, they All taught The Same Gospel.
---Lawrence on 1/15/11


Mysteriously the KINGDOM OF GOD is both in us an in turn we are in it!!
---mima on 1/15/11


Bill willa, Common mistake "the Kingdom is within you"
Even the old KJV margin says *or in your midst* meaning that Christ was in their midst ,among them
---1st_cliff on 1/15/11


Read These Insightful Articles About Rehab Treatments


Paul taught, "for the kingdom of God is not eating and drinking, but righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit." (in Romans 14:17) And Jesus said, "the kingdom of God is within you," in Luke 17:21. So, I would say that both Jesus and Paul say that God's Kingdom is in us.

Also, Jesus says, "the kingdom of God does not come with observation," in Luke 17:20, and Paul quotes how

"Eye has not seen, nor ear heard,
Nor have entered into the heart of man
The things which God has prepared for those who love Him."
(in 1 Corinthians 2:9)

So, both say the things of God's kingdom are not what the eye has observed. Also, God's things have not been in the hearts' desires of men.
---Bill_willa6989 on 1/14/11


Copyright© 1996-2015 ChristiaNet®. All Rights Reserved.