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Pre-Flood Language

Can we state, with any degree of accuracy, which language was spoken pre-flood?

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 ---1st_cliff on 11/2/13
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So the LORD scattered them abroad from thence upon the face of all the earth...?
---micha9344 on 3/11/14

I don't know for sure, but there are clues in between.
From Adam, Moses, Abraham, Jacob through to Christ there is one line. That line has communicated in different languages along the way as this verse will bear out on the way to a pure original or a pure new one.

Zep 3:9 For then will I turn to the people a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of the LORD, to serve him with one consent.
---Trav on 3/17/14


Cluny: "Was it? Do you have any external evidence to prove your point"

Of course it was. If you would scroll below, you would see that Strong Axe had given the answer. Now Michael has also given good scriptural evidence. Don't you believe the Bible?



---jerry6593 on 3/17/14


We understand that from the time God begin to speak to man, the language was Hebrew until Gen. 11:9 when God scattered them over the face of the earth and He confused the language of all the earth.
I take Gills commentary as being correct.
---Luke on 3/16/14


Do we believe this to be true: Gen 11:7-8 Go to, let us go down, and there confound their language, that they may not understand one another's speech. So the LORD scattered them abroad from thence upon the face of all the earth...?
Shouldn't we also believe this? Gen 11:1 And the whole earth was of one language, and of one speech.
During the time of Peleg is when most people agree the Tower of Babel happened.
Noah and Shem were both still alive through the birth and death of Peleg, their 6th and 5th generation son.
There is no reason to believe the Earth was not of one language at that time since the patriarchs were still alive and they hadn't spread over the Earth as commanded.
---micha9344 on 3/11/14


\\The same language was spoken from Adam to Babel, where God separated both the people and the language throughout the Earth.\\

Was it?

Do you have any external evidence to prove your point, such as writings or inscriptions in this Adamic language compared with similar things from the time of the Tower of Babel?

Glory to Jesus Christ!
---Cluny on 3/11/14




The same language was spoken from Adam to Babel, where God separated both the people and the language throughout the Earth. These were reunited at Pentecost, where men from many nations heard in their own language in one place.
Gen 11:1 And the whole earth was of one language, and of one speech.
Gen 11:7-8 Go to, let us go down, and there confound their language, that they may not understand one another's speech. So the LORD scattered them abroad from thence upon the face of all the earth...
Acts 2:6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.
Confused when they spoke differently.
Confused when they spoke the same.
---micha9344 on 11/19/13


1Cliff, very good answers you gave. Right from the Word of God. We all have a conscience, God speaks to our conscience, that is why we are warned not to go against conscience even when we are wrong, if we do, we begin to practice going against conscience and we will miss what God wants to convey to us.
When we feel something is wrong to do or take, we should not go against our conscience. Shira opposes liquer or drink. She should not go against her conscience. While others might feel it is ok.
What might be sin to her might not be sin to someone else.
---Mark_V. on 11/13/13


Shira, Still they have a conscience, but they ignore it to the point that it is no longer an influence , as Paul pointed out to Timothy!
Christians are aware of this and are careful not to violate their own conscience!
God endowed man with this factor so he would not act like animals!
Animals are governed by instinct, man by conscience!
---1st_cliff on 11/12/13


Cliff just a little common sense. Why can some kill over and over and not flinch one bit? Oh yes there are those that don't have any conscious. When Muslims tie a 4 yr old child to a fence and she starves to death that also is no conscious either.
---shira4368 on 11/12/13


Shira, All people have a conscience, some are damaged as Paul says 1Tim 4.2 that their conscience has been seared as with a hot iron!
A Christian conscience is molded by adhering to bible principles and shunning evil as was Job (Job.1.1)
This is not paying attention to whispers in the night but following a "good" conscience!
---1st_cliff on 11/12/13




cliff, really???? are you kidding me? if saved people don't have a conscience, then they are not saved. I said people can have a conscience even if they are not saved. most people know right from wrong but it don't bother them if they do something wrong. look at the muslims, they have shown me they don't have a conscience. they murder, burn and do other things to people and it don't bother them.
---shira4368 on 11/12/13


1Cliff, I know many people have idea's as to how to discredit Scripture, and write all sorts of things to convince others the Bible is not Truth. The Bible has gone through centuries only by the will of God. I am speaking of the manuscripts that survived. How they survived is by the will of God. And we believe it by faith. No matter the discrepancies people find, we know that God speaks to our hearts through His Word. And when we read it, He reveals something we have to do and believe it by faith. God made it possible for His Word to be here now for us at this point in time and believe it by faith.
"For blessed are those that believe and do not see."
---Mark_V. on 11/12/13


Shira, **People who are not saved have a conscience**
That's an interesting theory and must mean that those who "are saved have NO conscience! hmmm.
---1st_cliff on 11/12/13


Cliff, people who are not saved have a conscience but God won't speak to them except to ask forgiveness for salvation. There is a ton of difference.
---shira4368 on 11/11/13


Shira, How is this different from conscience ?
---1st_cliff on 11/11/13


When God speaks to the heart it's just as clear as words. At least for me it is. God has laid things on my heart that directed me to do certain things like helping someone.
---Shira4368 on 11/11/13


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Mark V, A very interesting read is a book called "Who wrote the bible" (Richard Elliot Friedman)lists 4 different authors identified as J,E,P and R as writers compiled perhaps by Moses (since he was not alive in that period) logical and reasonable!
---1st_clif on 11/11/13


1Cliff, we cannot tell with any degree of accuracy which language was spoken pre-flood. We are not told. Also the first five books of the Bible are credited to Moses. We are told the Bible was originally written in Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic. Genesis ends almost 3 centuries before Moses was born, but the composition of Genesis is ascribe to Moses.
---Mark_V. on 11/10/13


Leon, If God told Moses "exactly" what to write, it was not that great in that at that time primitive Hebrew had no vowels
(they were inserted orally) making translation very difficult!
Also various mss. differ so which ones are God touted?
There are no originals!
God did not preserve them!
True- God can do anything but He didn't do that!
---1st_cliff on 11/9/13


Cliff: Again, I'm convinced God spoke to the hearts of the OT prophets in the same manner (tongue) as He "first" spoke to Adam. As we know, Moses was an OT prophet.

Your analogy of the rain forest people & the OT Hebrews doesn't parallel: Translating the rain forest people's language into Portugese is based upon what man says to man. Genesis 1, & all of Scripture, is based upon what GOD says TO MAN. That's an insurmountable difference friend. :)

You seem to suggest Genesis 1 isn't God inspired (incontrovertibly true). I believe otherwise that God told Moses "exactly" what to write.
---Leon on 11/9/13


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Leon, Thanks for your input.
I can draw a parallel with the Yanomami peoples of the rain forest who have no written language and all writing must be translated into Portugese.
How accurate this presents the aboriginal ideas is speculative.
How accurate is Hebrew script at describing Gen.1 which may not be the language of Adam?
It's dogmatism that I question!
---1st_cliff on 11/8/13


God communicated with Adam first. I suspect, the same way we learn languages in infancy, Adam listened in his heart (spirit) to, heard & quickly learned to speak "God's language".

So, as a point of accuracy, Adam began verbally speaking "God" (WORD). (John 1...) Therefore, The "verbal" Adamic language was spoken pre- & post-flood by Noah, etc., until such time as the Tower of Babel mass language confusion.

I'm convinced God spoke to the hearts of the OT prophets in the same manner (tongue) as He "first" spoke to Adam.
---Leon on 11/7/13


So then, this "rule of thumb" that yom followed by a number means a 24 hour day is pure conjecture seeing that the language of Genesis 1 may not have been Hebrew!
An alphabetic written language did not appear 'till 3,500 BC!
---1st_cliff on 11/6/13


God knows. All that we have written from God has come from His love. So, His love is the original "language". So, in His love "in our hearts" (Romans 5:5) we have all He means. And His love includes His personal guiding in each of us, so we do practically all He really means by His word . . . at every moment.

And His love has His good sense, so we are not trusting the wrong people for ministry and marriage and medicine. "And this I pray, that your love may abound still more and more in knowledge and all discernment." (Philippians 1:9)

In His love we have His light so we can see better than any words can tell us. His word brings His light (c:
---willie_c: on 11/4/13


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In sub-Carpathian Ruthenia--that is, among the Slavic peoples who lived on the south slope of the Carpathian mountains--there were many local Slavic dialects which did not coalesce into a single standardized language until the late 19th century.

This might suggest something to you.

Glory to Jesus Christ!
---Cluny on 11/3/13


Can we be dogmatic about the grammar structure of pre flood Genesis when not only is there no evidence of a written language of that period, it may have been translated from an unknown tongue?
---1st_cliff on 11/3/13


In absence of any written records, no we cannot.

However, I would guess that in the neighborhood of Noah, some proto-Semitic tongue (for lack of a better name) was common.

Glory to Jesus Christ!
---Cluny on 11/3/13


There's no mention of any different of languages before the Tower of Babel, so presumably the same language was used before the flood, and after the flood until that time.

But when the languages were confounded, there's no mention of any preference to any one of them being preferred before, or after.

So, in short, we have no clue, because the Bible doesn't give us any clue. The best we can do is guess.
---StrongAxe on 11/3/13


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