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Why Did John Use Logos

Why did John use the word "Logos" in John 1:1?

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 ---1stcliff on 12/16/14
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Corrections to previous posts. These lines should read "I Am that which I [choose] to be. He [chose] to experience life as a man.":0) The following line would have been better understood as "The spoken word is His Son, in that it is the 'off spring' of Himself, in the sense of a 'product' [as that produced and brought forth solely of Himself], and utilized as the catalyst for the effectual operation of His faith..."
"How can inspiration be blasphemed?" By refusing it, or attributing the Father's power and inspiration to anything or anyone other than Himself. Having the semblance of piety, but dening the power that enables that piety, thus insulting the Spirit of grace. Mat. 2:31>2Ti 3:5>Heb 10:26-29
---Josef on 12/24/14

I believe the reason John used the word "Logos" is because:
2Tim 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
2Tim 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

I also believe that the writers of the new testament were just as the writers of the old:
2Pet 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.
---trey on 12/24/14

Correct Cluny

I have read that some commentators think John used Logos because of the Greek Philosophy on the word as used by the Stoics.

In Stoic philosophy, which began with Zeno of Citium c. 300 BC, the logos was the active reason pervading and animating the universe. It was conceived of as material, and is usually identified with God or Nature. The Stoics also referred to the seminal logos, ("logos spermatikos") or the law of generation in the universe, which was the principle of the active reason working in inanimate matter.

So to Gentiles and Greeks speakers it would call forth images that JESUS was creator and GOD.

---Samuelbb7 on 12/23/14

\\We were not discussing scripture from 2 peter but 1 peter 3.18-19. the greek word used is for prison not hell.\\

I thought we were discussing John 1:1, not the letters of Peter.

Glory to Jesus Christ!
---Cluny on 12/23/14

Trav, you are all talk, and a wimp. You have debated many issues, ardently, for years...

Indeed you post much Scripture...
---Warwick on 12/23/14

Issues, perhaps not scriptural Truths. This wimp's posted scripture gave you bloody blog lips (all four), ate all your blog dogs and sends you running yipping at me over your shoulder... wimp. Ha. From an effem like you boasting of trolling nude on the beach, on a Christian blog site. My left hand deals with imposters. My right you don't rate.
Some more irrelevant scripture for you: Mat 10:27 What I tell you in darkness, that speak ye in light: what ye hear in the ear, that preach ye upon the housetops.
(I do and will speak/post it...because you fearfully cannot.)
---Trav on 12/23/14

What's your point? ---1stcliffon 12/22/14

We were not discussing scripture from 2 peter but 1 peter 3.18-19. the greek word used is for prison not hell.

You say that spirits are created beings 3.19 and spirit 3.18 can only be inanimate as you have asserted many times.

The original question was about the spirit of a person living after physical.

1 Peter 3:18 ESV

For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive in the spirit,

I leave here with the hypocrisy of calling david8 out, using the same tactics,then crying foul.
Enjoy the shape shifting.
---aka on 12/22/14

aka, 2Pet.2.4. uses the word Tarterus "Putting them into gloomy dungeons to be held for judgment"(hell in KJV) Footnote NIV ,Tarterus was the term used by the Greeks to designate the place where the most wicked spirits were sent to be punished.
Strong's Concordance says phulake ..."prison"
What's your point?
---1stcliff on 12/22/14

Cliff,These verses have been debated over centuries. One group wants to use the greek words with loose English construct, and the result is always the same. E.g., as I said before and you ignored, tarterus [sic] is not the word used. phylake is, which has different connotations. So, is your argument based on fact or what someone else told you SSecondly if you want to return to the previous discussion, you need to pay attention to my words too. The discussion wasn't about a resurrection message to the spirits. It was if a spirit lives after the body dies.

now you can see why i call it the Council of Shifting Sand.
Let me know if this is a dialogue between us or just a platform where you can just speak your opinion without true witness.
---aka on 12/22/14

aka, So back to the earlier discussion , daimnion (evil spirits) are no longer angels but they are still "spirits" (spirit beings) , these are the "spirits in prison (tarterus) that Jesus preached to in Noah's day (Peter's words) Not a salvation message , but condemnation !
Seems logical to me !
---1stcliff on 12/22/14

Cliff, that is great example of what I am talking about.

daimnion is the greek for evil spirit or fallen angel. But a fallen angel is no longer an angel (aggelos).

Greek has what ... five or six words for different kinds of love. English has one. There is so much meaning lost in English.
---aka on 12/22/14

So, then, what is the difference between "evil spirits" and "demons"? Are they not "fallen angels"?
---1stcliff on 12/21/14

Samuel...thanks. I do know those things. Cliff and I have been in the Council of the Shifting Sands for quite a while now. There is no use to discuss the bible without some access to at least greek amd hebrew words, which we all have if we are using the computer.
---aka on 12/21/14

Actually pneuma
Merriam Websters
Definition of PNEUMA
soul, spirit
Strongs 4151
I can find no place it is translated as angel.

aggelos: an angel, messenger
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Definition: a messenger, generally a (supernatural) messenger from God, an angel, conveying news or behests from God to men.
HELPS Word-studies

32 ggelos properly, a messenger or delegate either human (Mt 11:10, Lk 7:24, 9:52, Gal 4:14, Js 2:25) or heavenly (a celestial angel), someone sent (by God) to proclaim His message.

These are the definitions of these words. Look them up.
---Samuelbb7 on 12/21/14

"Wrong! God's spoken word would be a creation.":o) Would it?
Only if, one believes that a thought, which the word expresses,and the breath that carries that expression forth, are also creations. Do You? Personally, I know that thought originated with the Father. We are made in Father's image. As inspired of Him, "As a man thinks in his heart, so is he." Father identifies Himself as I Am, that I Am." Given to me to understand as I Am that which I chose to be. He choose to experience life as a man. Which He did vicariously through His Son. Who was 'Made" tangible to man in the person of Jesus, the fulness of Deity, bodily..
---Josef on 12/21/14

Cliff, so aggelos and pneuma are interchangeable?
---aka on 12/21/14

Cliff, Jesus says the Holy Spirit can be blasphemed, and that anyone who does so "will not be forgiven" Luke 12:10.

Blasphemy in Biblical context "involves the actual pronunciation of the name of God along with an attitude of disrespect." Holman Bible Dictionary p. 222. Therefore The Holy Spirit is God's name, not the description of an inanimate force. Can electricity (an inanimate force) be blasphemed? Also can any human or angel be blasphemed?

Likewise can the inanimate examples of spirit (not Spirit) you gave be blasphemed?
---Warwick on 12/21/14

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Cliff, then why does the holy spirit have to be inanimate?
---aka on 12/21/14

aka, We both know that "spirit" has many definitions,
The "spirit of Christmas" for one..or spirit of '76
A horse can be "high spirited"
Angels are "spirit beings" invisible and intangible
This season sees much drinking of "spirits" from a bottle !.
---1stcliff on 12/20/14

\\The spoken word is His Son, in that it is the 'off spring' of Himself,\\


God's spoken word would be a creation.

The Son is begotten, NOT created.

Glory to Jesus Christ!
---Cluny on 12/20/14

"So His spoken word is also His Son?
The spoken word is His Son, in that it is the 'off spring' of Himself, in the sense of a product He utilized as the catalyst for the effectual operation of His faith to produce, through His Spirit, a desired outcome or result.
---Josef on 12/20/14

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"Where does Holy Spirit fit into this ?"
The Holy Spirit is the inspiration and insight provided through His Word, that has been sat apart for the enlightenment of man, and "emphasizes His personality, character, work and power [in man], as an influence which fills and governs the 'soul' (as the consciousness) of any one," which of course includes ones "appetite, mind, desire, emotion, and passion".
---Josef on 12/19/14

ok cliff

so now you want to talk about spirit again.

you contend that spirit is an inanimate force of God. In another blog, the same word was used (pneuma) in the plural. you said that it is translated as angels, which is a created being.

is there any other word in existence that has this unusual grammatical convention?

i sure hope that they post your response this time. then, we can talk about other words.
---aka on 12/19/14

OK, So we're talking about creation beginning and Logos (word).
Evangelicals believe that God "spoke" things into existence!
Let there be "light", "Water" etc...words. His "word" created them, Then His word is given personality, "Took on flesh and dwelt among us "
So His spoken word is also His Son ? Where does Holy Spirit fit into this ?
---1stcliff on 12/19/14

/What "beginning" is John talking about here?/

When God created the heavens and the earth.
John MacArthur has a good study book on John Ch.1 and can explain it better than I can in 125 words.
---Scott1 on 12/19/14

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\\Cluny, OK, tell me how your bible renders John 1.1.
---1stcliff on 12/18/14\\

John's GOSPEL opens with "In the beginning...."

Not his epistle, as you originally posted!

So there!

Besides, he wrote three of them.

Glory to Jesus Christ!
---Cluny on 12/19/14

"Why did John use the word "Logos" in John 1:1?"
Because John was referencing Father's Word, an utterance that conveyed His thoughts, as His Divine expression of Himself.

What "beginning" is John talking about here?
The beginning of the creative process.
---Josef on 12/19/14

Cluny, OK, tell me how your bible renders John 1.1.
---1stcliff on 12/18/14

\\John opens his epistle with "In the beginning"\\

No, he doesn't.

Glory to Jesus Christ!
---Cluny on 12/18/14

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John opens his epistle with "In the beginning"
God is from everlasting to everlasting , hence No beginning. If Jesus is just another form of God , then He also had no beginning.
What "beginning" is John talking about here?
---1stcliff on 12/18/14

This is in the wrong blog !
---1stcliff on 12/17/14

aka, It's not that long ago that epileptics and schizophrenics etc. were thought to be demon possessed !
Early in New England it only took the testimony of two witnesses to condemn a woman of witchcraft then she was promptly hanged or drowned !
This is ,after all 2014!
---1stcliff on 12/16/14

Logos is defined as a statement or expression. So John 1:1 we have God the Father express himself which we call the Son. And that the Son is with or equal to God the Father and part of God. It is through this expression that everything was created Gen 1:1. verse 14 this expression took on flesh to become Jesus the Son of God so that we can know him (v18)
---Scott1 on 12/16/14

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the Word of God, or principle of divine reason and creative order, identified in the Gospel of John with the second person of the Trinity incarnate in Jesus Christ.
So simply put Jesus became the word, Gods thoughts, actions when he spoke his fathers message. He was with his father in the beginning, so he knows his fathers actions & was taught by his father.
---candice on 12/16/14

Could it be because he was inspired to do so?

FWIW, many Chinese translations use DAO for Logos in John 1.

Glory to Jesus Christ!
---Cluny on 12/16/14

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