ChristiaNet MallWorld's Largest Christian MallChristian BlogsFree Bible QuizzesFree Ecards and Free Greeting CardsLoans, Debt, Business and Insurance Articles

How Does God Communicate

Does God personally communicate, all the time, with every human? I consider James 4:6 with 1 Peter 5:5.

(c:

Join Our Free Singles and Take The Who Is Mary Bible Quiz
 ---Bill on 9/15/16
     Helpful Blog Vote (1)

Post a New Blog



//Ever read Matt 24:1-2?//

Sir do you know the difference between a what Prophecy and the fulfillment of a Prophecy?

Jesus' Prophecy occurred in 70A.D. as I said, but after the written Scriptures.

Acts speaks about only of James' death.

If James' death is so IMPORTANT to record in Scriptures why not the destruction of the Temple?

God allows you to use reason when reading the Bible.

//not to mention you reference Boston College (liberal) This same Liberal Scholarship you are using also is used to disproove roman catholicism---john9346 on 9/28/16

Exactly WHY I used them so you wouldn't accuse me of using a Catholic Bias Source to prove you wrong.
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/29/16


john9346:

You wrote: you do not understand the uttered words pertaining to the "Scriptures.", "Theopneustos." this is the very voice, word, the very thought of God.

Yes, I do. Reading the scriptures is a good way to get the Logos of God - i.e. if you ask God "What is the nature of Jesus? or what is the nature of sin?"

However, it is useless as far as getting Rhema from God - i.e. if you ask God "Should I buy a new car? or should I move to Chicago?"

This goes back to you not understanding the vast difference between the nature of Scripture and canonicity that are not the same thing.

That is a different discussion that I am not talking about now.
---StrongAxe on 9/29/16


By the Word of God. That is how He speaks to us.
---Luke on 9/29/16


2 Tim 3:15-16-17..---john9346

John,

,15 and how from childhood "

, which would mean the Old testament which is the Septuagint, which contain the Deuterocanonicals and John rejects them. Paul mention about the OT, but nowhere mentions the NT

16 All scripture is inspired by God

,1. Yes Paul says scripture is profitable but nowhere tells Timothy what he is writing is scripture. It is the Church that declares this as scripture and only the Tradition of the Church which told us 2 Timothy is scripture!

2. It reads as "profitable' not sufficient.

17 that the man of God may be complete"

1. ' man of God' refers to a clergyman, it is an instruction to a Bishop not a layman!
---Ruben on 9/28/16


strongaxe states, "Matt 24:1-2 proves Jesus in 30 AD predicted the destruction of the temple in 70 AD. It says nothing about when Matthew actually wrote that story down."
And Matthew is the one given this charge to record to us what the Lord Jesus "Prophesied." and it state before not after my friend

Note sources:

Scripture Alone by Dr. James R. White.

Holy Scripture: The Ground and Pillar of Our Faith (3 volumes) by William Webster.

The New Testament Documents: Are They Reliable by FF Bruce.

The Canon Revisited and The Canon Fodder by Michael J. Kruger

May Yahweh guide you today,
---john9346 on 9/28/16




strongaxe states, "This gives us Logos, but not Rhema."

Sir, once again, you do not understand the uttered words pertaining to the "Scriptures.", "Theopneustos." this is the very voice, word, the very thought of God.

Remember, the "Scriptures." are "Divine in Origin." not human in origin.

This goes back to you not understanding the vast difference between the nature of Scripture and canonicity that are not the same thing.

You are jumping to the Secondary to learn the Primary which is confusing you.

Please study the sources cited to you.
---john9346 on 9/28/16


john9346:

You wrote: Ever read Matt 24:1-2?

Matt 24:1-2 proves Jesus in 30 AD predicted the destruction of the temple in 70 AD. It says nothing about when Matthew actually wrote that story down.

Could name some of your sources?

Wikipedia is an enclopedia, that is forbidden to just make up facts - it may ONLY refer to other sources, which are quoted in its footnotes. Google provides references to many online articles, many of which, in turn, cite THEIR sources.

all we have to do is get a bible, open to a chapter, and start reading.

This gives us Logos, but not Rhema.
---StrongAxe on 9/28/16


Nicole states, "John Sir, the REASON we KNOW that the Gospels wasn't written until AFTER 70 AD is because NO ONE writes about the destruction of their beloved Temple."

Ever read Matt 24:1-2?

Also, you are demonstrating exactly "Liberal Scholarship." not to mention you reference Boston College (liberal)

This same Liberal Scholarship you are using also is used to disproove roman catholicism.

You wouldn't survive ma'am at Boston College it is very, "Liberal."
---john9346 on 9/28/16


strongaxe states, "You dismissed my sources, so I invite you to cite yours."

Sir, first, you haven't cited any sources until now.

Next, I have taken the time to study and understand material from Primary and Secondary Sources (anti and pro) (scholars, historians) not Google or Wikkipedia which can not provide the Fundamental Categorical Understanding that is essential.

This is why I know Cluny and Nicole's Objections are based Primarily on Liberal Historians and Scholars) which also denies Eastern Orthodox and roman catholicism.
---john9346 on 9/28/16


strongaxe states, "That is not at issue. Unfortunately, since we can't directly read God's mind, we can't directly access that knowledge ourselves."


This is why we have the "Scriptures." which God has sovereignly given to everyone in order for us all to know what he thinks and feels. The "Scriptures." are "Theopneustos."

If we desire or need to hear God's Voice, all we have to do is get a bible, open to a chapter, and start reading.

the "Scriptures." are the very Voice of God spoken to us through these pages...
---john9346 on 9/28/16




john9346:

You wrote: Biblical Scholarship/history

You dismissed my sources, so I invite you to cite yours.

Google: "new testament" authorship timeline

There are several sites listed, most of which provides extensive details into the authorship of various New Testament books, as well as citing references describing where these numbers came from.

These scholars believe the "Scriptures." are corupt.

If perfect divinely inspired writings are copied and translated by fallible humans, the copies and translations DO become imperfect, and hence corrupt. Unfortunately, people subject to black-and-white thinking find such grey concepts difficult to grasp.
---StrongAxe on 9/28/16


strongaxe ask, "What makes you think that?"

Sir, Biblical Scholarship/history that is why I asked your friend Cluny the name of a scholar from where he is getting his information.

Scholars who argue that the gospels came later are scholars who do not believe like you ar espousing that the "Scriptures." are not, "Divine in Origin."

These scholars believe the "Scriptures." are corupt.
---john9346 on 9/27/16


strongaxe ask, "So divine inspiration depended on a popular vote?"

No sir concensus is canonicity inspiration is the "Nature." of Scripture.

I know you think that they are the same thing, but they are not.

Remember, like here and the other blog Sola Scriptura (Nature) canonicity (compiling)
---john9346 on 9/27/16


john9346:

You wrote: Also, the last book to be written was revelations.

What makes you think that? The order of books in the Bible is not chronological. Rather, it's thematic. The gospels come first, then the history (Acts), then epistles (specific, then general), then prophecy (Revelation. No "s"). This is the same order as the Old testament - law, history, writings, prophets. The Jewish order for the Old Testament is similar, but many books are in different categories (e.g. Joshua, Judges, Samuel and Kings are with prophets, Daniel, Ezra, Nehemiah and Chronicles are with writings).

the Census Criteria

So divine inspiration depended on a popular vote?
---StrongAxe on 9/27/16


John Sir, the REASON we KNOW that the Gospels wasn't written until AFTER 70 AD is because NO ONE writes about the destruction of their beloved Temple and ONLY speaks of James' death Acts 12:2

Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Paul, James or Peter DIDN'T makes ONE comment about the Temple or the other Apostle's deaths!

***In the mid-60s, James, Peter, and Paul are all killed. Peter and Paul likely perished during the persecution of the church in Rome by Nero. The deaths of these important church leaders likely encouraged the writing down of narratives about Jesus.

In the year 70, Roman armies destroyed Jerusalem and its Temple, effectively ending a Jewish revolt against the Empire that had begun four years earlier.- Boston College
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/27/16


Nicole states, "There wasn't a 'NEW' when Paul spoke to Timothy."

Ma'am, this is an error 2 Timothy was written about AD 66-68 by this time there were many NT Books that had been written and circulating among the believers.
---john9346 on 9/27/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Diabetes


cluny states, "Actually, john9346, most Biblical scholars say that the Gospel according to St. John wasn't written until 90 AD, and was the last book of the NT."

Sir, tell us by name who are these scholars.

Also, the last book to be written was revelations.
Cluny states, "There were other things written during the time you mentioned, some even by the apostles which were not accepted or even lost, such as St. Paul's letter to the Laodiceans."

thanks for raising this point because this meets the criteria for why Laodicea was rejected. This isknown as the Census Criteria.

Can you list say just 1 scholar you raise.
---john9346 on 9/27/16


strongaxe states, "I never questioned that. However he never said "ONLY scripture"."

Again, sir, when he used, "Theopneustos." he was stating, "Sola Scriptura."

Also, he stated to Timothy, "All Scripture." he also sent on to say that the man of God will be "Complete."

What are you asking me regarding you citingJn, Matt, Lk.

Again, when 2 Timothy was written many other NT Books were circulating and being written...
---john9346 on 9/27/16


Thank you Darlene for sharing your beautiful story.

At 10 I lived in Fort Beginning GA. A group of people from Grace Baptist Church in Columbus GA would spend their Saturdays knocking on doors inviting us to come to Sunday's services. They promised snacks after Church for just coming to Church. (I was a fat kid)
For the next 4 years they sent a Bus to my home (approx. 20 miles one way) every Sunday.

Later I realized I was the only kid they pick up from Fort Beginning (Costly in time and gas money)

35 years later I can still remember the Bible stories read and explained to me.

I thanked God many of times for their generous effort, time and money giving to me just because they truly Love Jesus and His other Children.
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/24/16


I just want to share my own experience with the Bible as a child. I wasn't even 10 when I was learning the Bible because from a very young age Mom would put me next to her and read the Bible to me especially as it pertained to something happening right at that time. She read verses to chase away fear or whatever I had a question about. I couldn't read but I could learn and understand which put the Word into my mind and my heart learned to trust in Jesus for all things. She was doing what the Bible tells parents to do,bring up a child in the way they should go. I learned to love and trust God and how to pray.
---Darlene_1 on 9/24/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Depression


//Nicole said, "You were not a 10 year old Genius reading the Bible."

So the Holy Spirit can not do what Jesus said he would do in Jn 16:13??//

**But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all the truth. He will not speak on his own, he will speak only what he hears, and he will tell you what is yet to come.

If JESUS who is God Himself waited until He was 12 to show His Scripture Scholar, why should I believe at 10 you are more advanced in Scripture?

//Paul told Timothy, "All Scripture." meaning (New and old) and not, "Some Scripture." see 2 Tim 3:16..---john9346

There wasn't a 'NEW' when Paul spoke to Timothy.

Remember the Bible didn't fall from Heaven
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/24/16


Actually, john9346, most Biblical scholars say that the Gospel according to St. John wasn't written until 90 AD, and was the last book of the NT.

There were other things written during the time you mentioned, some even by the apostles which were not accepted or even lost, such as St. Paul's letter to the Laodiceans.

Glory to Jesus Christ!
---Cluny on 9/23/16


Samuelbb7:

That is not at issue. Unfortunately, since we can't directly read God's mind, we can't directly access that knowledge ourselves.

I know "it is written" is irrefutable. That does NOT mean everything NOT written is not true. During NT times, all sayings of Jesus and Apostles were oral tradition, not yet written down - yet true anyway.



john9346:

1.

I never questioned that. However he never said "ONLY scripture".

By AD 66-68

I read Mt 70-100 or 80-85, Mk 68-73 or 65-70, Lk 85 or 80-100 or 80-85, Jn 90-100 or 90-100, so no.

where in 2 Tim 3:16 is this being taught??

Timothy relied on Paul's letters, which were not yet scripture.
---StrongAxe on 9/23/16


I am very sure GOD knew what would become scripture.

Scripture is GOD breathed or inspired by GOD.

How did Jesus answer the lies of Satan.

Matthew 4:4 But he answered and said, it is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.

He set the true standard of how to find truth and answer the foes of GOD. It is written.
---Samuelbb7 on 9/23/16


Shop For Christian Loans


strongaxe,

Sir, with much respect to you, Your claims are arroneous for 3 reasons:

1. Paul told Timothy, "All Scripture." not, "Some "Scripture."

2. When Paul pinned the words, "All Scripture." this was about AD 66-68.

3. By AD 66-68, The gospels and other books had all ready been written and were in circulation by this time.
---john9346 on 9/23/16


Nicole said, "Sorry Sir, I don't believe you. You were not a 10 year old Genius reading the Bible."

So the Holy Spirit can not do what Jesus said he would do in Jn 16:13??

Nicole states, "So, Timothy CAN take Paul's Authority on Jesus' Life that ISN'T in the Bible YET along with the OT Scripture, but We can't?"

Paul told Timothy, "All Scripture." meaning (New and old) and not, "Some Scripture." see 2 Tim 3:16.

Nicole said, "Timothy DOESN'T have to rely on Scripture ONLY, but we do?"

And where in 2 Tim 3:16 is this being taught??
---john9346 on 9/23/16


strongaxe,

Sir, categorically you are confusing 2 things:

1. When the prophets and apostles spoke in the "Scriptures.", what they said were "Theopneustos." In other words, words such as, "Thus Says the Lord." "God Said." "Jesus Said." "The Spirit Said." is "Theopneustos." because what came after was "God." not "Man."

2. You are starting to assert like in the other blog "Canonicity." which remember is not the same as "Sola Scriptura."

Sir, respectfully to you, try to remember there is a difference, they are not the same thing and "Sola Scriptura." doesn't depend on "Canonicity."
---john9346 on 9/23/16


john9346:

You wrote: this is patently false historically. Note, Paul states, "All Scripture."

Yes. And at the time he was writing those words, scripture was the Old Testament only, because the New Testament did not yet exist. How is this "patently false historially"? Are you claiming that the New Testament was all written before Paul wrote to Timothy??

So is Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John not "Scripture." according to your understanding?

Not yet AT THAT TIME, because they had not yet been written. The gospels were written after the epistles.
---StrongAxe on 9/22/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Bible Study


strongaxe ask, "If I write "theopneustos" on a piece of paper, does that suddenly make it the Word of God, and thus, me the author of the Word of God?"

No sir, because the very act and moment of Paul uttering the words, "Theopneustos." has occurred and we have the "Scriptures."

Strongaxe said, "Paul didn't establish scripture - it was already established long before he wrote that word."

And that is what Paul was telling Timothy when he told him the "Scriptures." are "Theopneustos." He told Timothy this because he wanted Timothy to know that the "Scriptures." were not that of his own, but of, by, and from "Theopneustos."
---john9346 on 9/22/16


strongaxe states, "God? No. Paul didn't establish scripture - it was already established long before he wrote that word - and, at the time he wrote it, scripture consisted ONLY of the Old Testament, as the New Testament hadn't even been written yet."

Sir, With all do respect, this is patently false historically.

Note, Paul states, "All Scripture."

So is Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John not "Scripture." according to your understanding?
---john9346 on 9/22/16


strongaxe said, "
Paul was not above God. However, if WE derive OUR trust in God's word from THIS scripture, we must have trusted Paul FIRST, since we couldn't even believe that scripture until we first believed Paul."

Again, so you understand this is why Paul told Timothy that the "Scriptures." are "Theopneustos." this alone set him apart from taking any credit for what he wrote...

Remember, as I stated to you prior, to utter the words, "Theopneustos." meant death in Paul's Day if you were lying so your claim sir is arroneous and conveys a paucious of understanding of the word, "Theopneustos." in attempting to say Paul put himself above God.
---john9346 on 9/22/16


john9346:

That is boostrapping. If I write "theopneustos" on a piece of paper, does that suddenly make it the Word of God, and thus, me the author of the Word of God? No. Paul didn't establish scripture - it was already established long before he wrote that word - and, at the time he wrote it, scripture consisted ONLY of the Old Testament, as the New Testament hadn't even been written yet.

If Paul wanted to place himself above "God." ...

Paul was not above God. However, if WE derive OUR trust in God's word from THIS scripture, we must have trusted Paul FIRST, since we couldn't even believe that scripture until we first believed Paul.
---StrongAxe on 9/22/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Bible Verses


strongaxe states, "No, I can't, because he didn't. So what? I never said I could."

Sir, to make sure you understand, when Paul uttered the words, "Theopneustos." meaning God-breathe it mean God Alone wrote, and established "Scripture."

This word, "Theopneustos." means the very veryGod's Words, speech, thought of God.

If Paul wanted to place himself above "God." as you state he would have have used another Greek Word not "Theopneustos."

Using this word to proclaim Human Authority would have resulted in "Blesphemous." worth of death.
---john9346 on 9/22/16


strongaxe states, "Not entirely. People saw that he had real authority, more than the priests and scribes (who only quoted scripture)."

And what did Jesus rebuke the priests and scribes with" What did he use to correct their traditions and authority what authority did he use?
---john9346 on 9/22/16


strongaxe,

Regarding your statements on God using prophets, the prophet of old spoke with the sole purpose to established "Scripture." never outside of the "Scripture." as you are proposing here.

The prophets didn't just"Speak speak." what they had to say had a specific purpose and a time, it wasn't normative as you are claiming my friend.
---john9346 on 9/22/16


//No ma'am,//

Sorry Sir, I don't believe you. You were not a 10 year old Genius reading the Bible.

The asterisk marked after certain Passages gives you someone else's interpretation of that Scripture.

Plus don't say you NEVER read those asterisk's fine print remarks in your Bible.

All serious Bible Readers read them.

//I obeyed the following: 2 Tim 2:15 "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."---john9346

So, Timothy CAN take Paul's Authority on Jesus' Life that ISN'T in the Bible YET along with the OT Scripture, but We can't?

Timothy DOESN'T have to rely on Scripture ONLY, but we do?

Nonsense!
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/22/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Arthritis


john9346:

Once again, you missed my point. I was addressing ONLY your comment that the Bible says "alone". To THAT ISSUE, authority is irrelevant. It doesn't matter who wrote the bible, or what authority it has. It just matters whether the words you said are there - and they aren't.

you can not give us another authority where Paul states the words, "Theopneustos."

No, I can't, because he didn't. So what? I never said I could. Is Paul the sole arbiter of what God can and cannot do, above even God himself? I think not.

When the Lord Jesus Christ...

Not entirely. People saw that he had real authority, more than the priests and scribes (who only quoted scripture).
---StrongAxe on 9/21/16


strongaxe states, "Authority has nothing to do with what the Bible actually says."

What and who ones listens to and follow is that Individual's Authority.

Strongaxe states, "That statement can only be as reliable as the one who said it. If you trust it, you must also trust Paul at least as much (which answers your second question)."

So, sir, am I to understand that you can not give us another authority where Paul states the words, "Theopneustos." God-breathe.
---john9346 on 9/21/16


strongaxe states, "Also, Paul's statement that X is inspired has no bearing on whether or not Y or Z are also inspired. If I say "bread is nutritious", it DOESN'T imply rice is useless. Elementary logic!

False my friend, Paul was aware of many books, traditions, etc.,yet, he stated the words when referring to the "Scriptures.", "Theopneustos." meaning God-breathe.

When the Lord Jesus Christ (God incarnate) walked the earth his constant rebuke, correction, conviction, and direction was again and again to people, "Scripture, Scripture, Scripture."
---john9346 on 9/21/16


Nicole said, "
When you STARTED to read the Bible you had to trust SOMEONE'S authority to explain it to you."

No ma'am, I obeyed the following:

"Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."

2 Tim 2:15
---john9346 on 9/21/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Asthma


john9346:

I was challenging your assertion that the Bible says "alone". Authority has nothing to do with what the Bible actually says (which can be verified by direct examination), only whether people believe it.

1. What other authority did Paul state the words, "Theopneustos." in 2 Tim 3:16 meaning God-Breathe.

That statement can only be as reliable as the one who said it. If you trust it, you must also trust Paul at least as much (which answers your second question).

Also, Paul's statement that X is inspired has no bearing on whether or not Y or Z are also inspired. If I say "bread is nutritious", it DOESN'T imply rice is useless. Elementary logic!
---StrongAxe on 9/21/16


God uses different ways of communicating with us he uses:


bible
dreams
songs
prophets
many scriptures e.g Ellen G white




t only depends with circumstances
---peezee7596 on 9/21/16


//an issue of authority, it will rise and fall on the matter of authority.//

Which authority?

John's authority?

Your Pastor's authority?

RCC's authority?

Baptist's authority?

When you STARTED to read the Bible you had to trust SOMEONE'S authority to explain it to you.

You didn't figure out the Bible on your own.

The Holy Spirit didn't bless you that way in your young youth

//1. "Theopneustos." in 2 Tim 3:16 meaning God-Breathe.
2. Can you show us another authority that is "Infallible and perfect?"---john9346 on 9/21/16

How come all your buddies can't agree on what the Bible teaches?

What many different ways does God Breathe?
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/21/16


strongaxe states, "No. Not ONE of those says "alone". Try again."

First, this is an issue of authority, it will rise and fall on the matter of authority.

Sir, what you must show us is:


1. What other authority did Paul state the words, "Theopneustos." in 2 Tim 3:16 meaning God-Breathe.

2. Can you show us another authority that is "Infallible and perfect?"
---john9346 on 9/21/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Cholesterol


strongaxe said, "Exactly. Prophets were a DIFFERENT way than through the bible, again proving that God does not speak through the bible "alone".

Sir, did you not know that prophets spoke during the bible a process by which God used for a certain period of time and not a continual occurrence.

"God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,"
"Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds,"

Heb 1:1-2

Strongaxe, Note, the change between vs 1 and vs 2 in how God speaks.
---john9346 on 9/21/16


john9346:

You wrote: God only communicates with his own through the bible and the bible "Alone."
I wrote: Where does the Bible ever say "alone"?
You wrote: 2 Tim 3:16-17, 1 Cor 4:6, Acts 17:10-11,

No. Not ONE of those says "alone". Try again.

I wrote: Where does the Bible ever say "alone"? What about prophets? Doesn't God speak through those too?
You wrote: See, 2 Pet 1:19-21, Eph 2:19-22

Exactly. Prophets were a DIFFERENT way than through the bible, again proving that God does not speak through the bible "alone".
---StrongAxe on 9/21/16


I believe God speaks to us in many ways, and for many different reasons.

One reason may be guilt, or fear of punishment, for a sin you may commit. Another reason, might be a command put into your heart, to render aid to someone in need.

And another, may be to simply give you understanding to a bible passage. God is always willing to speak to us, but to do so, we must make ourselves available to him.

Silence is the key, when one wants to hear God speak. Go for a long quiet drive, or a long quiet walk in the park. Those who don't hear God, don't hear, because unconfessed sin separates them from God (Isaiah 59:2). So get alone with God and Ask for his forgiveness, before you have your quiet time with him.
---David on 9/21/16


strongaxe ask, "Where does the Bible ever say "alone""

2 Tim 3:16-17, 1 Cor 4:6, Acts 17:10-11,



strongaxe ask, "What about prophets? Doesn't God speak through those too?"

The following will answer this question for you.

See, 2 Pet 1:19-21, Eph 2:19-22
---john9346 on 9/20/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Lasik Surgery


Job 33:14-22 For God does speak now one way, now another-though no one perceives it. In a dream, in a vision of the night, when deep sleep falls on people as they slumber in their beds, he may speak in their ears and terrify them with warnings, to turn them from wrongdoing and keep them from pride, to preserve them from the pit, their lives from perishing by the sword. Or someone may be chastened on a bed of pain with constant distress in their bones, so that their body finds food repulsive and their soul loathes the choicest meal. Their flesh wastes away to nothing, and their bones, once hidden, now stick out. They draw near to the pit, and their life to the messengers of death.
---mike4879 on 9/20/16


God speaks to us however He chooses. The primary vehicle of communication He has chosen is His written Word (the Bible). However, He's been known to speak thru the wind, rain, a still small voice within our hearts, thru other people & thru the abundance of the rest of His creation on Earth, & in the heavens.
---Leon on 9/20/16


God communicates with us chiefly through the Bible. He may also do so through other people or circumstances.
---Cluny on 9/20/16


Bill wrote: So, why would people try to hear from God, only at certain times??

I have no clue. I never mentioned "only at certain times", so I wonder why you are bring it it up? I was speaking of people who are constantly trying to hear from God, but never hear anything.



john9346 wrote: God only communicates with his own through the bible and the bible "Alone."

Where does the Bible ever say "alone"? What about prophets? Doesn't God speak through those too?



Nicole_Lacey wrote: Agreeing with someone isn't the only form of communication.

Acknowledging receipt of an offer and refusing it, is communication. Not receiving an offer is not.
---StrongAxe on 9/20/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Bullion


Nicole if there is no understanding, there is no communication.
To communicate is to impart knowledge, or to make something known.
For example, no matter how many words are shared with me in italian, since I don't personally understand italian, nothing has been communicated to me. Jesus said, "Unto [His disciples] it is given to know the mysteries of the kingdom of God: but to others in parables, that seeing they might not see, and hearing they might not understand." Would you say Jesus was communicating with those who did not understand? Was the Father seeking to communicate with the people that He spoke to with " stammering lips and another tongue"?
---Josef on 9/19/16


Rather we understand, agree r reject Him. It is still communication on God's part." ---Nicole_Lacey on 9/17/16

No, that would be an attempt on His part to communicate.--Josef on 9/18/16

No if that is true that means you are NOT SAVED. (agreed as I wrote above)

Through out history PEOPLE who were Saved was because God's communicated to them.

As I said, God is always communicating with us.

Not accepting His Salvation is still communication on our part. (reject)

Agreeing with someone isn't the only form of communication.
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/19/16


Bill ask, "Does God personally communicate, all the time, with every human?"

Good question sir.

God only communicates with his own through the bible and the bible "Alone."
---john9346 on 9/19/16


Strong Axe, you wrote >

"There are many people who want to hear from God, but don't, so it's not for lack of trying."

Isaiah 58:11 says God will guide us "continually". So, why would people try to hear from God, only at certain times?? We can be sharing with Him in His personal guiding, all the time (c:

People can be busy with what they decide they will do, then suddenly expect God to answer to them when they dictate that they want to hear from Him, about something. But we need to constantly submit to how He guides us . . . "continually" . . . in the personal ruling of His peace in our hearts > Colossians 3:15.
---Bill on 9/19/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Menopause


Rita_H:

You wrote: it could be that most people are not listening or will just brush aside anything that God wishes them to hear.

There are many people who want to hear from God, but don't, so it's not for lack of trying. If God speaks to them in a way that they're not predisposed to hearing, it's like talking to a deaf person, or using sign language to a blind person - it's futile gestures, not communication. God knows in advance what we can and will listen to. Speaking in a way he KNOWS we can't or won't is a total waste of time on his part, and on ours.
---StrongAxe on 9/19/16


"this indicates that God isn't inclined to communicate with most people." Strongaxe.....OR it could be that most people are not listening or will just brush aside anything that God wishes them to hear. God does not force anything on us. If we are open to his guidance He WILL guide us but it will not be in audible words like two human beings would use.

Communication is not just audible words, but can be by thoughts, circumstances 'chance' encounters - to name but a few.
---Rita_H on 9/19/16


"God has been communicating with us since we were created. Rather we understand, agree or reject Him. It is still communication on God's part." ---Nicole_Lacey on 9/17/16
No, that would be an attempt on His part to communicate.
---Josef on 9/18/16


Sign language are used.

God finds other ways as He has done for us to understand Him.

That is why He sent His Son also know as 'The Word'.

Who's Word? God's Word.

I can say hello to you. You look at me and refuse to speak back to me.

You communicated to me, but NOT communicating verbally with my greeting.

From that exchange I realize you don't want to speak to me.

Body language.

//Which came first, belief or grace, is not clear - both happened at the same hour, but either one could have been first---StrongAxe

CORRECT! Thanks

That is the problem the RCC is having.
Because it isn't CLEAR is the REASON why that line is banned.

RCC believes Grace ALWAYS comes FIRST.
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/18/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Christian Penpals


Nicole_Lacey:

The 125-word and 75-message limits here make this quite difficult. This is the only site I know with such restrictive limitations of either kind. I have no idea why they impose such restrictions, but they keep making life difficult for posters again and again.
(I repeatedly whine about this here publicly, because there is no specific way to contact the moderators directly to address such issues - which is another failing.)

But respond with gentleness and respect,

Sadly, many here forget this part.


Rita_H:

The fact that there are so many people who want to communicate with God, but can't seem to be able to, this indicates that God isn't inclined to communicate with most people.
---StrongAxe on 9/18/16


//There is no error in "Amazing Grace." You misunderstand and misinterpret the verse, or someone told you how to.
---micha9344 on 9/17/16

Yet, you didn't try to correct my misunderstanding nor give me the correct interpretation?

You had extra words before hitting the 125 word max.

So the RCC is correct about that line.

Next time at least try to give an answer.

You can give your opinion about me after your rebuttal.

1 Peter 3:15
But in your hearts sanctify Christ as Lord. Always be prepared to ARTICULATE a DEFENSE to everyone who asks you to give the reason for the hope that you have. But respond with gentleness and respect,
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/17/16


I believe that God is capable of communicating with anyone with whom He wishes to communicate. He knows us so well and knows that one method will work best with one person and a different way with another.

God can communicate through dreams, circumstances, other people etc. If we truly believe God IS capable of contacting us then we will be open to the many ways that He might choose to guide us, tell us something, show us something etc. Everyone is unique and God will use our uniqueness to speak to us individually. We must not assume that He'll do so in a way that He spoke to a different person.

When we believe He is speaking with us we must pray and, maybe, ask for more clarity. If He gives instructions we must follow them.
---Rita_H on 9/18/16


Nicole_Lacey:

You wrote: We can't tell God 'You never told me.'

If you speak to a deaf person, you might be excused for not knowing he's deaf, but if you KNOW he's deaf before you start, you know you aren't communicating, like speaking to a wall.

Similary, if God speaks to us, and KNOWS full well we can't hear him, he's not really communicating.

It seems the person is saying he choose to believe God on his own power and as an result he was rewarded with God's precious Grace.

Not quite. It APPEARED - i.e. was always there, just invisible to the singer UNTIL he believed. (Which came first, belief or grace, is not clear - both happened at the same hour, but either one could have been first.)
---StrongAxe on 9/18/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Accounting


Amen Micha

I love amazing grace.
---Samuelbb7 on 9/18/16


"Communication can go one way."---Nicole_Lacey on 9/17/16 No, it can not.
Communication is defined as "the imparting or interchange of thoughts, opinions, or information by speech, writing, or signs." If one will not hear, listen to, or attempt to understand what is being imparted, no communication has been established, and by the following verse it is apparent that not everyone will perceive or hear when the Father speaks. "Behold, a king shall reign in righteousness, and princes shall rule in judgment....And the eyes of them that see shall not be dim, and the ears of them that hear shall hearken." Isa 32:3
---Josef on 9/18/16


Many people who do not know Jesus or God, but yet will still have eternal life.---Steveng on 9/16/16

That's not possible, for "this is eternal life, that they may know [the Father], the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom [He] have sent. And this is the promise that He has promised [the believer]-eternal life. And this is the testimony: that God has given us eternal life, and this life is in His Son. He who has the Son has life, he who does not have the Son of God does not have life. Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me." Jhn 17:3>Jhn 17:3>1Jo 5:11,12>Jhn 14:6
---josef on 9/18/16


Did you know that the RCC doesn't approve of the song 'Amazing Grace' Why?

/One line that isn't correct://How precious did that grace APPEAR The HOUR I FIRST BELIEVED//- Amazing Grace...I hope I explained the error in 'Amazing Grace' song clearly\-Nicole_Lacey on 9/16/16
There is no error in "Amazing Grace." You misunderstand and misinterpret the verse, or someone told you how to.
---micha9344 on 9/17/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Fundraisers


//Who cares what the RCC thinks about anything? I certainly do not.---KarenD on 9/16/16

Now, who is being nasty now?

No one asked if you cared.

I was in a dialogue with other people.

If you truly DIDN'T care you wouldn't have made a remark in the first place.

Either debate or not.

We don't need any childish remarks.
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/17/16


Who cares what the RCC thinks about anything? I certainly do not.
---KarenD on 9/16/16


It is written that God will pour out his spirit in the end days, but who is listening? God does not want anyone to die. God does not want anyone to go to hell. Many people who do not know Jesus or God, but yet will still have eternal life.
---Steveng on 9/16/16


//(Communication is the transfer of information. If you send information and the other person either doesn't receive it, or receives it incorrectly, communication did not occur.)---StrongAxe 9/16/16

I see your point, but I would say that would be ineffective communication.

But I believe it is because we don't take advantage of the English language, or use it properly. (As I always butcher it myself.)

We also say 'I am trying to communicate with you, but you are not being receptive to me.

Communication can go one way.

God has been communicating with us since we were created. Rather we understand, agree or reject Him.

It is still communication on God's part.

We can't tell God 'You never told me.'
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/17/16


Read These Insightful Articles About Ecommerce


//No not every human being has embraced His Word nor received His Spirit.---Josef

Well, I believe you are speaking about us communicate with God, not God's communication with us. He does.

We can't come to Him without God coming to us FIRST.

Did you know that the RCC doesn't approve of the song 'Amazing Grace' Why?

One line that isn't correct:

//How precious did that grace APPEAR The HOUR I FIRST BELIEVED//- Amazing Grace

It seems the person is saying he choose to believe God on his own power and as an result he was rewarded with God's precious Grace.

Actually it was God's Grace shown to the man to have strength to come to Him.

I hope I explained the error in 'Amazing Grace' song clearly
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/16/16


Clearly not, because there are many people who seek to hear from God, but hear nothing - and many others who claim to hear from God, but hear contradictory things, so most of them must be wrong.

(Communication is the transfer of information. If you send information and the other person either doesn't receive it, or receives it incorrectly, communication did not occur.)
---StrongAxe on 9/16/16


"Does God personally communicate, all the time, with every human?"
No, not every human being has embraced His Word nor received His Spirit.
---Josef on 9/15/16


Copyright© 1996-2015 ChristiaNet®. All Rights Reserved.