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Dating A Married Woman

I've been dating and sleeping together with a married woman for two years now and she is getting divorced will I be able to receive God's Blessing in marriage with this spouse?

Moderator - Of course not.

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 ---Ed on 9/26/16
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//You will not ever have God's blessing in this.---mike4879 on 11/3/16

True, Short and to the Point!
---Nicole_Lacey on 11/3/16


You will not ever have God's blessing in this.
---mike4879 on 11/3/16


Bathsheba suffered only by connection

David isn't accused of adultery.

He is accused of taking Uriah's wife AFTER killing Uriah.



Carrying to term a healthy son, only to have God kill the baby, will cause suffering to the mother.

2Sam 12:9 . . . hast taken his wife to be thy wife IS adultery.

Misusing his kingly authority to 1) do another capital sin, 2) to cover an earlier capital sin, dishonors God and His people. David choosing to abandon his loyalty to God, for a servant wife of another is a horrible sin, is horrible judgment, and is a horrible example for the citizens and the soldiers of God.
---aservant on 10/28/16


If she cheated on her husband with you, what makes you think she won't cheat on you?
---wivv on 10/26/16


StrongAxe, God did PUNISH David, but not Bathsheba.
Bathsheba suffered only by connection

As a mother suffers when her son is in jail.

I am SORRY.
After reading 2 Samuel 12:1-12 I realized my error.

David isn't accused of adultery.
V8 I gave you your lord's house and your lord's wives for your own.

He is accused of taking Uriah's wife AFTER killing Uriah.

Remember, Nathan doesn't approach David until after many months after the affair.

V9 You have cut down Uriah the Hittite with the sword, you took his wife as your won and him you killed with the sword of the Ammonites.

David also is accused of using the enemy to kill Uriah which means he went 'below the belt' in HOW had Uriah killed.
---Nicole_Lacey on 10/12/16




Nicole_Lacey:

You wrote: Going in circles. The point is that God and Nathan refuses to EXECUTE innocent people.

Your point relies on the assumption that "the penalties demanded by the Law are always carried out", which is demonstrably false, by your very example. Neither God nor Nathan executed David, even though HE WAS guilty of adultery, and the law demanded it. Nowhere does the law say that any king is excused from the penalties of transgressing the law. Thus, the fact that they declined to execute someone does not prove that person was therefore innocent.
---StrongAxe on 10/11/16


//David's attendants knew who was in his bed.//

GUESS who else knew she was in David's bed?

GOD AND NATHAN!

//Bathsheba had the capacity to scream in the Palace. She chose not to.//

Amen to that!
And SHE WASN'T Stoned to death because she was INNOCENT.

You all are agreeing with me.
The Bible states to stone to death if adultery is committed.

//Can't be executed if she has no accuser. She had no accuser but God (relayed via Natan)//

Going in circles. The point is that God and Nathan refuses to EXECUTE innocent people.

//Can't execute the minor accomplice if you don't execute the major criminal.---aservant on 10/11/16

GOD can, because HE is GOD!
---Nicole_Lacey on 10/11/16


Bathsheba still couldn't SCREAM because who is going to accuse the KING of RAPE?

Bathsheba had the capacity to scream in the Palace. She chose not to. David's attendants knew who was in his bed.

BTW, you left out V24 Both should be stoned to death.

Can't be executed if she has no accuser. She had no accuser but God (relayed via Natan) and He chose not to execute David (also relayed by Nathan). Can't execute the minor accomplice if you don't execute the major criminal.
---aservant on 10/11/16


You can't stone the King and Bathsheba wasn't stoned because she was innocent.

God can order Nathan to execute David. She was NOT innocent. She would have certainly been heard if she had screamed.
---aservant on 10/11/16


Nicole_Lacey:

You wrote: Deut 22 DOESN'T apply to either of them because you CAN'T stone the King and Bathsheba COULN'T SCREAM!

Show me a scripture that says kings are above the law. Also, Bathsheba could easily have screamed. Deut. 22 makes an exception for women in the country (where witnesses are few), not women in the city (even if they can't scream).

This Scripture SUPPORTS my verdict not yours.

No. V24 says what the commandment WAS. That it wasn't always followed shows the flexibility of man's government, not of God's law.
---StrongAxe on 10/11/16




//to anyone who knew, David legally married a grieving widow.---StrongAxe

EXACTLY!

David would have gotten away with Uriah's death and his new wife.

GOD told Nathan ALL the SINS COMMITTED.

Guess what?
Bathsheba WASN'T accused of adultery!

Nathan was made aware of David's sins from God Himself because NO ONE KNEW!

God isn't stupid or forgetful.

Deut 22 DOESN'T apply to either of them because you CAN'T stone the King and Bathsheba COULN'T SCREAM!

V24 you shall take BOTH of them to the gate of that town and stone them to death..woman because she was in a town and did not scream for help, and the man because he violated another mans wife.

This Scripture SUPPORTS my verdict not yours.
---Nicole_Lacey on 10/10/16


If she is being RAPE why didn't she scream for help?

Exactly! Because she is not being raped.

So logically Moses is saying she agreed because she didn't scream.


God is saying she was in agreement. God Authored Scripture. God is the Law creator. Moses just repeated what God said to men, because God did not want to talk to men.
---aservant on 10/10/16


Nicole_Lacey:

Bathsheba still couldn't SCREAM because who is going to accuse the KING of RAPE?

Moses gave an exception where a woman is outside of town, so nobody would hear her - yet never gave any exception if she was gagged, or had a knife to her throat, or was intimidated for any reason. While such exceptions matter to us, they didn't to Moses, and UNDER THE LAW, Bathsheba was guilty of adultery because she didn't cry out. If you don't like that, take it up with Moses. It may not have been just (so Nathan didn't single her out), but it WAS the law.

God had to TELL Nathan of David's sin.

Uriah's murder was disguised as a military death, so to anyone who knew, David legally married a grieving widow.
---StrongAxe on 10/10/16


"Dt 24:22-27 . . . ---Chria9396 on 10/10/16

No. Should have been Dt 22:22-27, not Dt 24:22-27. My error, sorry.
---aservant on 10/10/16


Aservant you are just as bad as StrongAxe.

Deut 22:23-27 If speaking about the DIFFERENCE of when a woman claiming she is raped in the TOWN (with plenty of people who could hear her screams.
If she is being RAPE why didn't she scream for help?

So logically Moses is saying she agreed because she didn't scream.

Bathsheba still couldn't SCREAM because who is going to accuse the KING of RAPE?

BTW, you left out V24 Both should be stoned to death.

You can't stone the King and Bathsheba wasn't stoned because she was innocent.
Thus why Nathan stepped in to punish David.

You do know God had to TELL Nathan of David's sin.

Or are you suggesting God didn't realize Bathsheba was with David at the time?
---Nicole_Lacey on 10/10/16


"Dt 24:22-27 shows that if the woman is not screaming for help, then she is cooperating and is guilty of adultery."

aservant, are these correct verses? KJV ends at 22
---Chria9396 on 10/10/16


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Why did God kill an innocent child for the sin of his father? ---StrongAxe on 10/8/16

1) He is not innocent. He is the proof and the RESULT of adultery. If the act is sinful, how can the result be less sinful?

God does not want offerings from the sinful earnings of male or female prostitutes. Dt 23:17-18
God did not allow bastards to even enter the church for 10 generations. Dt 23:2

2) The Righteous God is not going to have His next King be born from lawbreaking, since he must be the Highest human judge of righteousness in God's nation. Proof: Born of the same parents, Solomon was born a highly gifted King AFTER David and Bathsheba were married.
---aservant on 10/10/16


You MADE THAT UP! No verses after 22 for chapter 24 in Deut.

I made a mistake, just like you have accusing me lying. But you are the liar, because your research is not thorough. And you are too melodramatic to be taken seriously.

Dt 22:22 . . . having sexual intercourse with a married woman, both that man and the woman must die . . .
Dt 22:23 . . . when a man has sexual intercourse with a virgin who is engaged . . .
Dt 22:24 . . . The girl must die because she was in a city and didn't scream for help . . .
Dt 22:25 . . . then only the man must die.
Dt 22:26 . . .
Dt 22:27 . . . in the country. She may have screamed for help, but no one was there to rescue her.
---aservant on 10/10/16


Nicole_Lacey:

aservant wrote: Dt 24:22-27 shows that if the woman is not screaming for help, then she is cooperating and is guilty of adultery.

You wrote: 1. You MADE THAT UP! No verses after 22 for chapter 24 in Deut.

No, it was not made up, just mis-referenced. Look at Dt 22:22-27.

2. HOW DARE YOU!What if the woman has a weapon against her neck (knife or the man's hand)
Some might be shock or too scared to scream.


Dt doesn't mention any exceptions to that. Take it up with Moses.
---StrongAxe on 10/10/16


//Dt 24:22-27 shows that if the woman is not screaming for help, then she is cooperating and is guilty of adultery.//

1. You MADE THAT UP! No verses after 22 for chapter 24 in Deut.

2. HOW DARE YOU!What if the woman has a weapon against her neck (knife or the man's hand)
Some might be shock or too scared to scream.

YOU ARE SICK!

//No Scriptural evidence that Bathsheba was raped,---aservant

1 Samuel 12:1-12
Prophet Nathan COMPARES Bathsheba to a little ewe LAMB and a Daughter to her husband.

V9 Why have YOU (singular) spurned the Lord and done evil in His sight?..YOU TOOK his wife as your own,

V12 YOU have done this DEED in SECRET,

Do you think God and Nathan FORGOT about Bathsheba?
---Nicole_Lacey on 10/9/16


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She was raped by King David

Dt 24:22-27 shows that if the woman is not screaming for help, then she is cooperating and is guilty of adultery.

No Scriptural evidence that Bathsheba was raped, and was seeking rescue.


I must wonder if Bathsheba was free of blame because she had no choice . . . ---Darlene_1

A husband divorcing her can cause his wife to commit adultery, though she has no blame.

Mat 5:32 (Darby) But *I* say unto you, that whosoever shall put away his wife, except for cause of fornication, makes HER commit adultery . . .

Is Bashsheba innocent, taking a bath in the King's view??
---aservant on 10/8/16


Nicole_Lacey:

(Replying a second time, as first reply was "lost")

She was raped by King David

Possibly. However, the scripture says he called for her, and she came. No mention that she objected or resisted. Was she afraid? How is the threat of the king's wrath worse than the threat of being stoned for adultery?

Indubitably! That's why God punished David and rewarded Bathsheba

How? The first son of BOTH died (punishing both). The second son of BOTH became the greatest king (blessing both).

Oh, the "pro-life" argument: Why did God kill an innocent child for the sin of his father?
---StrongAxe on 10/8/16


//married woman who sleeps with another man IS committing adultery.//

You know that's why in Sharia Law a RAPED women is guilty of adultery because she was foolish enough to be raped?

Do you know how SEXIST and MEAN that sounds?

She was raped by King David

//BOTH committed adultery. How does only one person commit adultery?//

When you are the King, or you rape someone.

//The penalty for adultery was BOTH were to be stoned.//

Indubitably! That's why God punished David and rewarded Bathsheba

//"Bat" is Hebrew for "daugher"//

It was a joke. I ended it with the word 'anywho'

//Did the Apostles own a Honda? They were in one Accord).--StrongAxe

Good one
---Nicole_Lacey on 10/7/16


I must wonder if Bathsheba was free of blame because she had no choice but was forced by a King's order to attend him in a sinful manner on his part. She was merely taking a bath and I would guess many things were done on the roofs of the homes. Does the Bible say she bathed on the roof with the purpose of enticing the King to lust after her? Not really does it? Doesn't it all add up to the fact the King sinned with lust,rape,and then had her husband killed. She didn't plan any of that,did she? Could that be the reason he was punished and she was blessed?
---Darlene_1 on 10/7/16


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adultery definition, Hebrew Scripture:
H5003

na'aph
naw-af'
A primitive root, to commit adultery, figuratively to apostatize: - adulterer (-ess), commit (-ing)
adultery, woman that breaketh wedlock.

The woman (Bathsheba) certainly committed adultery.
---aservant on 10/7/16


Nicole_Lacey:

Wrong. A married woman who sleeps with another man IS committing adultery. BOTH committed adultery. How does only one person commit adultery? The penalty for adultery was BOTH were to be stoned.

Oddly, her action on the roof is what caught David's eyes and so happens to be PART of her name????

"Bat" is Hebrew for "daugher". She was "Daughter of Sheba". Enlish puns are irrelevant (see also "The Wilderness of Sin" - "Sin" means "tooth" in Hebrew. Did the Apostles own a Honda? They were in one Accord).

God blessed her with her 2nd son and made her Queen Mother!

Yes - God blessed their marriage eventually DESPITE adultery.
---StrongAxe on 10/7/16


StrongAxe, you are wrong. Bathsheba did not commit adultery.

Only David committed adultery and his family was destroyed because of his affair.

Aservant gave you a litany of curses that hit David because of his sin.
He even left some out.

Their first born son died because of David not Bathsheba.

Oddly, her action on the roof is what caught David's eyes and so happens to be PART of her name????

Anywho

God blessed her with her 2nd son and made her Queen Mother!

1 Kings 2:19

So Bathsheba went to King Solomon to speak to him for Adonijah. And the king arose to meet her, bowed before her, and sat on his throne, then he had a throne set for the king's mother, and she sat on his right.
---Nicole_Lacey on 10/6/16


aservant:

One of David's sons, Solomon, was the wisest man who ever lived, and the greatest king Israel ever had.
---StrongAxe on 10/5/16


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God blessed David and Bathsheba, even though both had committed adultery.
---StrongAxe on 10/4/16


Not really.

2Sa 12:11 Thus saith the LORD, Behold, I will raise up evil against thee out of thine own house, and I will take thy wives before thine eyes, and give them unto thy neighbour, and he shall lie with thy wives in the sight of this sun.
2Sa 12:12 . . . I will do this thing before all Israel . . .

David's losses:

newborn son, killed by God
10 wives to his son, in front of the nation
Amnon, murdered
Absalom, murdered
Adonijah, executed by Solomon
---aservant on 10/4/16


Nicole_Lacey:

Your bible says indecency. KJV says uncleanness. Hebrew is "ervat davar". Erva is shame, nakedness, indecency. Davar is thing or word. This is "unclean thing", "naked thing", "shame of the word" (e.g. breaking the Ten Commandments), etc.

It is totally at husband's discretion - "if HE has found...", not subject to any scrutiny. It's his word against nothing. Things like adultery and non-virginity before marriage were already punishable by death.

Under Moses, adulterers can't repent - they are executed.

I see no place in this where God will bless that marriage.

God blessed David and Bathsheba, even though both had committed adultery.
---StrongAxe on 10/4/16


//So, basically, a man could freely divorce his wife once a month, any month before menopause. How is that NOT "no fault divorce"?---StrongAxe on 10/3/16

No because the word was NEVER 'uncleanness'.

You inserted that word into Deuteronomy 24:1 and took out the word 'indecency' to support your thought process.

I gave you the Bible definition of someone considered 'unclean'/'uncleanness'.

Lepers are considered to be unclean.

And even if a wife has leprosy it isn't a reason to divorce her according to Jesus or Moses.
---Nicole_Lacey on 10/4/16


Even if you confess and repent of your current adultery, and God forgives you and wipes your sin slate clean, you still cannot be blessed in a marriage with her.

Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery

Christians are not permitted to marry a known adulteress. If you marry her, you are committing adultry. I see no place in this where God will bless that marriage.
---aservant on 10/4/16


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Nicole_Lacey:

A woman is unclean after her monthly cycle or giving birth. The word is INDECENCY!

So, basically, a man could freely divorce his wife once a month, any month before menopause. How is that NOT "no fault divorce"?

Explain Matthew 19:7-11 if you disagree with me?

I disagree with you, and I have already explained it several times.
---StrongAxe on 10/3/16


Where did you get the word 'uncleanness'?

A woman is unclean after her monthly cycle or giving birth. The word is INDECENCY!

Deut 24:1 "she finds no favor in his eyes BECAUSE he has found some INDECENCY in her,

Thus it is Objective not Subjective.

Adultery is objective (measured fact)

//Maybe she can't wash the laundry properly?---StrongAxe on 10/3/16

That's Subjective (Matter of opinion - unable to measure)

Back to Matthew 19:7-9

Jesus ROLLED BACK the rules and STOPPED the 'No Fault' Divorces which made the Disciples voice it is better NOT TO MARRY (since they can't get rid of her for ANY reason)

Explain Matthew 19:7-11 if you disagree with me?
---Nicole_Lacey on 10/3/16


Nicole_Lacey:

You wrote: No because there any LAW by Moses stating you can divorce a wife for ANY REASON.

OK. Can you describe, exactly, what specfic reasons are allowed. "He finds an uncleanness in her". "uncleaness" is not specific. What exactly does that mean? It can't mean adultery, because there was already a remedy for that - death by stoning. Maybe she can't wash the laundry properly? This says that HE finds a problem, which means it's totally subjective and up to his own judgment (i.e. he doesn't like her, and he kicks her to the curb). Sins against the law were adjudicated by priests, not the husband's whims.
---StrongAxe on 10/3/16


//Jesus was not speaking of the actual Moses, but of his successor?//

No because there any LAW by Moses stating you can divorce a wife for ANY REASON.

//Moses in Deut 24:2 PERMITTED remarriage after divorce i.e. no fault.//

That isn't the definition of a no fault divorce.

He has to have a REASON to divorce the woman FIRST.

We are talking about the 1st husband!

Deut 24:1 "When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes BECAUSE he has found some INDECENCY in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce.

//Jesus in Matt 19:7-9 FORBADE remarriage after divorce--StrongAxe

No, the Disciples are talking about divorce not remarriage.
---Nicole_Lacey on 10/2/16


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Matthew 19:9 actually says "I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, EXCEPT FOR SEXUAL IMMORALITY and marries another woman, commits adultery." NIV.

If a man can divorce an adulterous wife and then remarry I am 'assuming' that the reverse would be true of a woman divorcing an adulterous husband.
---Rita_H on 10/2/16


Nicole_Lacey:

We call Pope Francis: Peter as Jesus does with the name of Moses Matt 23:1-3

What evidence do you have that Jesus was not speaking of the actual Moses, but of his successor? This is pure supposition.

Moses in Deut 24:1 is the same thing Jesus states in Matt 19:7-9

Moses in Deut 24:2 PERMITTED remarriage after divorce when the husband is dissatisfied with his wife (i.e. no fault). Jesus in Matt 19:7-9 FORBADE remarriage after divorce. How are these two the same?

INDECENCY

A vague reference. HE finds - it's subjective. And it's NOT adultery - for that, she would get stoned to death, not divorced.
---StrongAxe on 10/1/16


NO, NOT AT ALL. You will not be able to get God's blessing whatsoever. Scripturally speaking, any man who marries a divorced woman commits adultery. You, however, could not wait to commit adultery, so commit adultery with a married woman. There is no blessing in it.
---mike4879 on 10/1/16


StrongAxe, you must read between the lines.

We call Pope Francis: Peter as Jesus does with the name of Moses Matt 23:1-3
Moses NEVER granted a no fault Divorce.

Moses in Deut 24:1 is the same thing Jesus states in Matt 19:7-9

The Disciples were shocked because no longer a man can divorce his wife for ANY REASON! Only for Adultery

You left out an IMPORTANT word from Deut 23:1-2: INDECENCY

When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes BECAUSE he has found some INDECENCY in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce.

In other words it CAN'T be because she finds no favor in his eyes because she got fat, old, mean, lazy, careless with money...
---Nicole_Lacey on 10/1/16


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Nicole_Lacey:

You wrote: I said that Matt 19:7-9 is Scripture proofs.

No. Matthew 19:7-9 says MOSES, not his SUCCESSOR. You are reading the word "successor" between the lines, not in what the scripture ACTUALLY says.

Deuteronomy 24:1 states the same as Matthew 19:7-9

Yes. Jesus was quoting what Moses actually said, so why do you keep saying it was Moses's successor, when it was Moses HIMSELF who said it?

Deut. 24:1 ALLOWS a man to divorce his wife and 24:2 ALLOWS her to re-marry. So how does Jesus return marriage "back" to this, when he explicitly contradicts 24:2?
---StrongAxe on 10/1/16


There are evidences Moses most likely didn't write Deutronomy. ('Did Moses Write Deuteronomy?' -Posted by Theosophical Ruminator under Bible, Theology)

//Matt 23:1//

That verse proofs Jesus calls everyone sitting in Moses chair Moses.

//Jesus did not grant no fault divorce.--StrongAxe

I said that Matt 19:7-9 is Scripture proofs.

Deuteronomy 24:1 states the same as Matthew 19:7-9

But by the time Jesus arrives there were 'no fault' divorce and Jesus states Moses granted them. (Not the first Moses, but his Successor sitting in his chair Matt 23:1-3.)

Jesus returns Marriage back to Deut 24:1 and the Disciples complain saying it is better not to get marry if they can't have the 'no fault' divorce.
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/30/16


Nicole_Lacey:

You wrote: It was Moses' Successor who granted 'no fault' divorce.
I wrote: Oh? Who? When? Where (chapter+verse)?
You wrote: I gave them to you already. Matthew 19:7-9

No. Matthew 19:8 wrote: He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

Moses allowed it. There is no mention of successor here.

Moses never himself granted no fault divorce. Only speaks about it in Deuteronomy 24:1 as Jesus

Moses himself wrote Deutronomy.

Matthew 23:1

Jesus did not grant no fault divorce.
---StrongAxe on 9/30/16


Again Matthew 19:8 Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard.

The reason divorce was permitted was because to prevent the men from killing their wives in order to remarry. Jesus knew the reason He is God.

//Oh? Who? When? Where (chapter+verse)?--StrongAxe on 9/29/16

I gave them to you already. Matthew 19:7-9

Moses never himself granted no fault divorce.

Only speaks about it in Deuteronomy 24:1 as Jesus

"When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some INDECENCY in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce.

No fault divorce wasn't granted by Moses, but by his Successor Matthew 23:1
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/29/16


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Nicole_Lacey:

You wrote: Jesus already answered you in Matthew 19:7-9.

No, he didn't. He said divorce was tantamount to adultery. He did NOT say adultery was worse than (or not as bad as) murder. He did not mention murder at all.

Men were killing their wives in order to remarry.

I suspect the reason for the rule that forbade a man from re-marrying his divorced wife after she had married another was, it prevented divorced husbands with "seller's remorse" from murdering their ex-wife's new husband, or intimidating him into divorcing her so she could re-marry her original husband.

It was Moses' Successor who granted 'no fault' divorce.

Oh? Who? When? Where (chapter+verse)?
---StrongAxe on 9/29/16


//under Jesus' Commands NOW. Matthew 19:7-9
Yes, but David was NOT.//

No I was defending the Moderator's answer to ED.

You challenged the Moderator's answer with the David and Bathsheba's scenario.

//consider this paradox: which is worse? Marrying a divorced woman, or murdering her husband first,..---StrongAxe

Strangely Jesus already answered you in Matthew 19:7-9.

Jewish Scholars discovered that's WHY divorces were granted.

Men were killing their wives in order to remarry.

Side note: It was Moses' Successor who granted 'no fault' divorce.

Jesus still called him Moses and recognized it as part of the law. Matthew 23:1-3.

Same as when Pope Francis is called Peter
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/29/16


You can receive God's blessing now.

You can love her by stopping what is wrong, and encourage her to find out how to love her husband and any and all people >

"For if you love those who love you, what reward have you?" (in Matthew 5:46)

Love does not have us just using anyone.
---Bill on 9/29/16


Nicole_Lacey:

You wrote: We are under Jesus' Commands NOW. Matthew 19:7-9

Yes, but David was NOT. I was saying that EVEN THOUGH David's taking of Bathsheba as wife was wrong, God was STILL able to bless their marriage later.

Now, if you say they are different, because someone divorced now is still not free to marry, consider this paradox: which is worse? Marrying a divorced woman, or murdering her husband first, and then legally marrying her, because she is now a widow - as David did? Because murder is a one-time sin that can be forgiven, while living in adultery is continuous state of sin.
---StrongAxe on 9/29/16


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//Under Jewish law, one could marry EITHER a divorcee or a widow.//

We are under Jesus' Commands NOW. Matthew 19:7-9

Why then, they asked, did Moses order a man to give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away? Jesus answered, It was because of your hardness of heart that Moses permitted you to divorce your wives, but it was not this way from the beginning. Now I tell you that whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman, commits adultery.

You are the one who challenged the Moderator with the OT example.

The Moderator answered ED today.


//AFTER she gets a divorce, and is free to marry again.--StrongAxe

Read Matthew 19:7-9 again.
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/28/16


Nicole_Lacey:

You wrote: Remember Bathsheba ONLY could marry David because her husband was dead.
Bathsheba wasn't a divorcee, but a widow.


Under Jewish law, one could marry EITHER a divorcee or a widow. David was sleeping with her while she was still married.

BTW, note ED's question is about marrying the Spouse.

AFTER she gets a divorce, and is free to marry again.

In both cases, the subsequent re-marriage (after divorce or widowhood) may be legitimate, but the adultery that preceded it, and lead to it, was not.
---StrongAxe on 9/28/16


Go right ahead, Ed. I'm sure she will be as faithful to you as she was to her first husband.

Glory to Jesus Christ!
---Cluny on 9/28/16


//Moderator wrote: Of course not.
Are you absolutely sure about that? Remember David and Bathsheba...God did indeed bless their marriage.---StrongAxe

The Moderator is correct

Remember Bathsheba ONLY could marry David because her husband was dead.

Bathsheba wasn't a divorcee, but a widow.

The first born child died because David had Uriah the Hittite killed.

Bathsheba had the right to remarry. Who better than David to take on the responsibility to care for her since he killed her husband?

BTW, note ED's question is about marrying the Spouse.

So even ED subconsciously knows she won't be available to marry him after their divorce
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/28/16


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Moderator wrote: Of course not.

Are you absolutely sure about that? Remember David and Bathsheba. David slept with a married woman, and went so far as to arranged to have her husband killed - both very serious matters. Yes, God did punish them (by killing their firstborn son), yet later, God did indeed bless their marriage. Their son Solomon was the greatest king Israel ever had, and the wisest man that ever lived.


Ed:

What makes you think your wife will be faithful to you after you are married, as she has already demonstrated that she is willing to sleep around behind her husband's back? What makes you think she will treat you any differently, once you marry her? This is likely an accident waiting to happen.
---StrongAxe on 9/28/16


Are you having fun Ed? God gets the last laugh!

"Be not deceived ~ God is not mocked: for whatever a man sows that will he also reap." (Galatians 6:7)
---Leon on 9/27/16


You state she is getting a divorce which means she is still married NOW.

Don't worry about getting God's blessing if you marry the wife in the future, but rather asking for forgiveness NOW for 2 types of moral sins you both are committing.

Adultery and Fornication.

Just one of them will send you to hell if you die tomorrow.
---Nicole_Lacey on 9/27/16


Ed.....I have one word for you. FOOL!!
---KarenD on 9/27/16


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I'm quite amazed that you had to ask this. I hope that you did not come here hoping to hear from us all that God blesses such behaviour.

There might be some churches prepared to perform a marriage ceremony for you but being ALLOWED to marry by a church and by the state is not the same as being BLESSED by God.

All sin 'can' be forgiven but unless there is true repentance it won't be. If you tell God you repent He'll know if you are fake or sincere so don't go through the motions just so it will look alright.
---Rita_H on 9/27/16


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