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Who Wrote The New Testament

Did Jesus write any of the books in the New Testament? Did he write any of the New Testament? In the New Testament, we have words attributed to Jesus. Yet what did Jesus write? What did he personally write?

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Jesus did not write the Bible. But the apostles who knew him wrote about him and what Jesus said.

Luke gathered the stories and words of Jesus and put them together. Paul, James and Jude joined the Apostles in being inspired to use their words to write the thoughts of GOD.

GOD is love.
---Samuelbb7 on 1/21/17


Jesus preexisted Abraham. I would not be surprised that he had walked in the garden with Adam, and that he was among those that visited Abraham before going on to Sodom. It is not outruled.
---mike4879 on 1/21/17


John the three that spoke with Abraham, and later with Lot were the LORD'S messengers conveying the Word of the LORD, as spoken by the LORD, concerning Sodom and Gomorrah. The LORD spoke through these Angels as a ventriloquist speaks through a dummy. In other words, only the words of the ventriloquist are conveyed through the dummy. How do I know this to be true? As Jesus said, "No one has seen God, neither heard His voice, at any time,." The LORD Himself said "no man shall see Me, and live."
---Josef on 1/21/17


Jesus said, "BEFORE ABRAHAM WAS, I AM." Further, Jesus asked why David would call him "Lord" "My LORD SAID TO MY LORD" if he was THE SON of David? So Jesus co-existed with the Father before all else.
---mike4879 on 1/20/17


John, I wanted to also say, that there was no Jesus until the human Son was born. There has always been a Christ Who is the Son. When Mary had the baby He was called Jesus the Christ.
Christ appeared many times in the Old Testament.

Concerning the blog, Jesus did not write any of the books. Certain men gifted by God did. The words attributed to Jesus are there so that we can understand when Jesus is talking. As soon as the books are written they become part of the New Testament.
---Luke on 1/20/17




Joseph:

"Verse one states there were two angels."

Yes, do you now see Moses need for making the great emphasis in vs 24?? This answers your question of "Why not?"

"I believe there is one LORD, regardless of the context."

Sir, do you not think that Moses didn't believe this as well yet he went on to state what he stated in vs 24...
---john9346 on 1/20/17


"So, yes, there is 1 "YHWH." in essence,yet, distinct in substance.
John what does this mean? Please explain.
---Josef on 1/17/17

In the being of God (essence) there exist Father, Son, and Holy Spirit who are co equal, co eternal, and co existing, 3 distinct persons. The Father is not The Son, The Son is not The Father, and The Holy Spirit is not the Father nor is he the Son.

These 3 persons make up God not 3 different Gods, but only 1 true Living God.




---john9346 on 1/20/17


Jesus did say, "Before Abraham was, I AM." I do consider Jesus to be the FIRST FRUIT of creation, that the Father desired a son, and that THE FATHER AND THE SON TOGETHER FORM ALL ELSE. Jesus de-emphasizes being "son of David" in siting his lordship placing him before David. Jesus is not merely A GREAT MAN or merely THE GREATEST MAN there ever was. There are enough scripture verses to show more than mere man. Jesus is a chip off the old block. Like Father, like Son.
---mike4879 on 1/17/17


"Note, one of Lot's Visitors was the Pre-incarnated Lord Jesus Christ Note, he was on earth and not in heaven."
Verse one states there were two angels.
"Joseph my friend if it is all one person then there would have been no need for Moses to explain to us "Who is doing the actions." and "From where the actions are taking place." Why not?
"I believe you are aware that context always determine words in there meaning and usage correct??"
John I believe there is one LORD, regardless of the context.
"So, yes, there is 1 "YHWH." in essence,yet, distinct in substance.
John what does this mean? Please explain.
---Josef on 1/17/17


Mike4879 ask, "Is this Yahweh said to Yahweh or YHWH said to YHWH?"

Yes it is.

Ps.110:1 is rendered correctly because here you have the Father communicating with the Son who are 1 in essence and distinction, "110 The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."


---john9346 on 1/17/17




Mike4879 ask, "I have always thought there is ONE YHWH, NOT TWO."

First, you always seem to know how to ask the right questions my friend please keep up the good work...
As the Doctrine of the Trinity explains, "
In the being of God (essence) there exist Father, Son, and Holy Spirit who are co equal, co eternal, and co existing, 3 distinct persons. The Father is not The Son, The Son is not The Father, and The Holy Spirit is not the Father nor is he the Son."

So, yes, there is 1 "YHWH." in essence,yet, distinct in substance.

---john9346 on 1/17/17


What of Psalm 110:1?
---mike4879 on 1/17/17


in regard to the proper name for "GOD", here's another from that same source. "The three words 'El,' 'Elohim,' and 'Yhwh' (Josh. xxii. 22) connote one and the same person".
---Josef on 1/16/17

But Sir, I believe you are aware that context always determine words in there meaning and usage correct??
---john9346 on 1/16/17


Joseph my friend if it is all one person then there would have been no need for Moses to explain to us "Who is doing the actions." and "From where the actions are taking place.

Point in mind Moses explains to us why he went to great length to provide an emphasis in Gen 19:24,
---john9346 on 1/16/17


Note, "And there came two angels to Sodom at even, and Lot sat in the gate of Sodom: and Lot seeing them rose up to meet them, and he bowed himself with his face toward the ground,"
"And he said, Behold now, my lords, turn in, I pray you, into your servant's house, and tarry all night, and wash your feet, and ye shall rise up early, and go on your ways. And they said, Nay, but we will abide in the street all night."
Gen 19:1-2

Note, one of Lot's Visitors was the Pre-incarnated Lord Jesus Christ Note, he was on earth and not in heaven.

Now Moses explains his reasons for "The Designation of Destinations."in vs 24
---john9346 on 1/16/17


I have always thought there is ONE YHWH, NOT TWO. Maybe better verses to answer this are Psalm 110:1, Matthew 22:44, Mark 12:36, Luke 20:42, Acts 2:34-35, and Hebrews 1:13? "MY LORD said to my Lord, "Sit at my right hand til I make your enemies into your footstool." Is this Yahweh said to Yahweh or YHWH said to YHWH? How does Psalm 113:1 have it? How are the TWO LORDS rendered in these verses?
---mike4879 on 1/17/17


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"So Joseph are you telling us "Then the Lord rained." "from himself out of heaven,"?? " Yes John. You quoted from the "THE UNIVERSAL JEWISH ENCYCLOPEDIA" in regard to the proper name for "GOD", here's another from that same source. "The three words 'El,' 'Elohim,' and 'Yhwh' (Josh. xxii. 22) connote one and the same person". Note: person, not persons. "If there is only 1 person then why did Moses emphasize designations??" To emphasize that the fire and brimstone that rained upon Sodom and Gomorrah from the sky was of and from the "LORD".
---Josef on 1/16/17


What i said is that "there is only one Yehovah" or YHVH if you prefer. You apparently think that's two "persons", I don't.
---Josef on 1/15/17

First, its clear from Gen 19:24that there is 2 persons acting who are 1 in singular "YHWH."

Gen 19:24, "Then the Lord rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the Lord out of heaven,"

Everyone note, Moses's Words, "Then the Lord rained." "from the Lord out of heaven,"

So Joseph are you telling us "Then the Lord rained." "from himself out of heaven,"??

If there is only 1 person then why did Moses emphasize designations??
---john9346 on 1/16/17


"Jehovah: A mispronunciation of the Hebrew "Yhwh," the (ineffable) name of God (the Tetragrammaton or "Shem ha-Meforash"). This pronunciation is grammatically impossible,:" The Jewish Encyclopedia

"JEHOVAH -"an erroneous pronunciation of the Tetragrammaton, or four-lettered name of God made up of the Hebrew letters Yod He Vav He. The word "Jehovah" therefore, is a misreading for which there is no warrant and which makes no sense in Hebrew." THE UNIVERSAL JEWISH ENCYCLOPAEDIA
---john9346 on 1/15/17


"THE TRUE PRONUNCIATION OF THE NAME YHWH WAS NEVER LOST. Several early Greek writers of the Christian church testify that the name was pronounced "YAHWEH". This is confirmed, at least for the vowel of the first syllable of the name, by the shorter form yah,"

"The personal name of God of Israel is written in the Hebrew Bible with the four consonants YHWH and is referred to as the "Tetragrammaton." At least until the destruction of the First Temple in 586 B.C.E. this name was regularly pronounced with its proper vowels, as is clear from the Lachish Letters, written shortly before that date." ENCYCLOPAEDIA JUDAICA pg 680 Vol 7
---john9346 on 1/15/17


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"I stated that Jewish Sources confirm that Jehovah is a mispronounciation."
Actually John that is irrelevant to me, and certainly not worth debating. When Moses asked Him His Name, His response was I Am that I AM. He has given me to know Him as Father, and to call Him by that name. I also know Him as the one true God and Father of the Lord Jesus, the Christ.
"You must proove isdoes Gen 19:24 teach modalism??
Why? I never said it did. What i said is that "there is only one Yehovah" or YHVH if you prefer. You apparently think that's two "persons", I don't.
---Josef on 1/15/17


Question for john9346: Jesus grew in wisdom and stature, John 9346. Who then was his teacher?
---mike4879 on 1/15/17

Sir, did you readLk 244-52. The HolySpirit tells you through Luke.


---john9346 on 1/15/17


So those reading do not become confused:

1. I stated that Jewish Sources confirm that Jehovah is a mispronounciation.

2. Gen 19:25 doesn't disproove Gen 19:24 (2 persons acting) because the trinity affirms that there is 1 (Yahweh) and1 (God),however, within this unity 2 persons are revealed not modes, but person.

3. Joseph you know the understanding of the Trinity not sure of your attempt to misrepresent.

4. You must proove isdoes Gen 19:24 teach modalism??
---john9346 on 1/15/17


Definition of theTrinity,

In the being of God (essence) there exist Father, Son, and Holy Spirit who are co equal, co eternal, and co existing, 3 distinct persons. The Father is not The Son, The Son is not The Father, and The Holy Spirit is not the Father nor is he the Son.

These 3 persons make up God not 3 different Gods, but only 1 true Living God.
---john9346 on 1/15/17


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Josef:

The English translation of that verse is actually pretty much the same as the Hebrew, even if it sounds a bit clunky. Idiomatically, one could also translate "fire from the LORD" as "the LORD's fire", which might sound a bit smoother in English.
---StrongAxe on 1/15/17


Question for john9346: Jesus grew in wisdom and stature, John 9346. Who then was his teacher?
---mike4879 on 1/15/17


"Actually, this translation is not quite correct. "one LORD" doesn't really make sense." I agree Strongaxe, which is why I used that translation. To understand it is to understand, "Then the Lord rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the Lord out of heaven" which also does not really make sense as translated.
---Josef on 1/14/17


Josef:

You wrote: What both "Jewish sources", and Jesus confirm is "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:"

Actually, this translation is not quite correct. "one LORD" doesn't really make sense. Proper names (like YHVH) typically don't have qualifier adjectives (e.g. you don't say "I went to the store and saw one Bill behind the counter").

The Hebrew is "shma yisrael YHVH eloheinu YHVH ehad", which means
"Hear, O Israel:
The LORD [is] our God.
The LORD [is] one."
This is how the Jews have always translated it.

(But this is a minor thing - I agree with the rest of your post)
---StrongAxe on 1/14/17


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What both "Jewish sources", and Jesus confirm is "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:" Deu 6:4>Mark 12:29 What this scripture states, with emphasis, is that Jehovah rained down fire and burning sulfur from the sky on Sodom and Gomorrah. Again, John, the very next verse states "'He' [singular] overthrew those cities, and all the plain, and all the inhabitants of the cities, and that which grew upon the ground.
---Josef on 1/13/17


John: "The word "Everlasting Father." in Isa in Hebrew actually means Father of Eternity"

Thanks for that. I had always wondered about that name.



---Jerry6593 on 1/14/17


Joseph,

Sir, First, the name is Yahweh there is no dispute over this Jewish Sources even confirm this...

Gen 19:24, "Then the Lord rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the Lord out of heaven,"

Everyone note, Moses's Words, "Then the Lord rained." "from the Lord out of heaven,"

2 persons are acting in this verse and Moses lets us know that they both are, "Yahweh."
---john9346 on 1/13/17


"First, its Yahweh, and the context reveals 2 persons act work"
No, the constants are YHVH or Yod, Heh, Vav, Hey, not YHWH. I have know idea where the name Yahweh came from. The only reference I have is the strong's concordance, and the transliteration is Yehovah, and the bible translates it as either JEHOVAH, YAH, JAH, or LORD. The context uses the same name in both places, and there is only one Yehovah.
---Josef on 1/13/17


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Joseph states, "John, The LORD in both instances is Yehovah, the one true God. He overthrew those cities."

First, its Yahweh, and the context reveals 2 persons act work. If this an example of modes or modalism, then the Personal Separationt expounded by Moses he would have removed it.
---john9346 on 1/13/17


strongaxe,

In Gen 1:1-2 the word for God (Elohim) is also plural my friend.
---john9346 on 1/13/17


"Sir, my point in Gen 1924 there are 2 separate person at work listen, "24 Then the Lord rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the Lord out of heaven,"---john9346 on 1/12/17 John, The LORD in both instances is Yehovah, the one true God. He overthrew those cities.
---Josef on 1/12/17


strongaxe,

Sir, Gen 1:26, 3:22,11:7-8 Elohim is plural my friend, In respect to you, what you cited about Elohim tell us did you get this from the Hebrew Language??

"3. Gen 19:24 is totally singular. In all others, God and associated verb are singular (even if "us" is later used in plural)."

Sir, my point in Gen 1924 there are 2 separate person at work listen, "24 Then the Lord rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the Lord out of heaven,"
---john9346 on 1/12/17


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john9346:

2. "Elohim" has masculine plural inflection, always plural when it means "godss", always singular when it means "God". The number agrees with the associated verb. "Elohim bara" means "God created". "Elohim baru" means "gods created", etc. Number and gender are grammatical, and do not necessarily indicate plurality. "Mayim" (water) is dual, despite the fact that one never speaks about "two waters". English scissors and pants are single objects.

3. Gen 19:24 is totally singular. In all others, God and associated verb are singular (even if "us" is later used in plural).
---StrongAxe on 1/12/17


strongaxe states, "I don't recall any places in the Old Testament where any such distinction is made at all (except for a few glosses,"

Things to note:

1. The NT is a fulfillment of the OT so things that weren't clear in OT are now fully revealed to Christians in NT.

2. Elohim in OT is plural it is the word for "God."

3. Distinction: Gen 1:1-2, 1:26, 3:22, 11:7-8, 19:24, Isa 6:8, and 4816
---john9346 on 1/11/17


The word "Everlasting Father." in Isa in Hebrew actually means Father of Eternity not that Jesus is the Father, but his function is with the Father.
---john9346 on 1/11/17


aservant wrote "Jesus is a type of Father to the adopted, because without His Blood, there would be no adoption."

"A type of Father?" Nobody is called Father except God the Father.

aservant wrote "Commentaries will give other valid reasons He is called Father."

Need to be careful about commentaries and concordances. These documents are written by man having their own interpretations. Try meditating on the words of God and relying on the Holy Spirit for guidance.
---Steveng on 1/11/17


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---StrongAxe on 1/11/17

Is 9:6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and HIS NAME shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.

This is one of the names given Him by the Author, His Father. Jesus is a type of Father to the adopted, because without His Blood, there would be no adoption.

Commentaries will give other valid reasons He is called Father.
---aservant on 1/11/17


john9346:

You wrote: through out "Scripture." God The Father is revealed to be the giver, the planner, and the source of all things, God The Son (The Lord Jesus Christ), is the one who carries out the Father's Desire, God The Holy Spirit is the one who applies in other words who give the stamp of approval on the plan.

I don't recall any places in the Old Testament where any such distinction is made at all (except for a few glosses, like "the spirit of God moved over the face of the deep" and "I will pour out my spirit on all flesh"). God is usually just referred to as God or YHWH without distinction.
---StrongAxe on 1/11/17


strongaxe ask, "Given that, What was/is the Father's function, if Jesus is responsible for it all?"

Sir, through out "Scripture." God The Father is revealed to be the giver, the planner, and the source of all things, God The Son (The Lord Jesus Christ), is the one who carries out the Father's Desire, God The Holy Spirit is the one who applies in other words who give the stamp of approval on the plan.

Good question my friend.
---john9346 on 1/11/17


Steve: Jesus was indeed God. He is a member of the Trinity, as are the Father and the Holy Spirit.

Did you believe that Jesus life began at Bethlehem?

You need to get to know your God.



---Jerry6593 on 1/11/17


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Jerry6593:

You wrote: Scripture disagrees. Jesus was indeed the Creator God of Genesis and the Lawgiver of Mt. Sinai.

While scripture does say Jesus was around from the beginning ("before Abraham was, I AM"), it does not say he was the lawgiver of Mt. Sinai. It is clear that Jesus, the Son, is NOT the same as the Father. At his Baptism, the Father said "This is my Son in whom I am well pleased". In Gethsemane, Jesus said "take this cup away from me, but thy will, not mine be done" - both nonsensical if he is also the Father.

Given that, What was/is the Father's function, if Jesus is responsible for it all?
---StrongAxe on 1/11/17


Jerry6593 wrote: "Scripture disagrees. Jesus was indeed the Creator God of Genesis and the Lawgiver of Mt. Sinai."

Then who spoke when Jesus was baptized? Was Jesus a ventriloquist?

Why do you call Jesus good? No one is good except God alone. Mark 10

Who said "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God?"

How could Jesus not know of his return? Only God knows.

Who said that he will ascend to... My God and your God? John 20

Why did Mary call him Rabboni (which means teacher)?

Who did Jesus glorify to perform miracles?
---Steveng on 1/10/17


Steveng: "Jesus did not exist in the old testament."

Scripture disagrees. Jesus was indeed the Creator God of Genesis and the Lawgiver of Mt. Sinai.

Joh 1:3 All things were made by him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.

Heb 1:2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds,

1Co 10:2-4 And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea, And did all eat the same spiritual meat, And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.

You should get to know the REAL Jesus Christ.


---Jerry6593 on 1/10/17


Jerry6593 wrote: "I think the only handwriting we have from Jesus is in the OT,"

Jesus did not exist in the old testament. Jesus is a man. God will judge the world in righteousness through a man whom he has appointed by raising him from the dead. Acts 17:31
---Steveng on 1/9/17


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I think the only handwriting we have from Jesus is in the OT, in Exo 20 - The Ten Commandments. Pity so few Christians acknowledge His work.


---Jerry6593 on 1/9/17


Don't know how you can separate the writer of OT and the writer of NT :

2 Samuel 2:23 - The spirit of the Lord spake and his word was in my tongue,

Jeremiah 1:9 - Then the Lord put forth his hand touch my mouth , And the Lord said unto me , Behold , I have put my words in thy mouth

Jeremiah 36:4 - Then Jeremiah called Baruch the son of Neriah , and Baruch wrote from the mouth of Jeremiah, all the words of the Lord, which he had spoken unto him , upon a roll of a book:

2 Peter 1:21
---RichardC on 1/8/17


Cluny wrote: "Please give one example of paganism."

Statues.

God expressly says not to make any images found beneath the waters, on the land or in the air, but yet the catholic "church," as well as other denominational "churches," have crosses, statues of saints, the nativity scenes during christmas, decorate christmas trees, etc.
---Steveng on 1/8/17


Dear Mike4879:

Sir, I appreciate your Posting Question.

I just want to provide you the following resources to provide you a fundamental Understanding pertaining to your question. It is paramount to know the foundation to your question

see below:


Note sources:

Scripture Alone by Dr. James R. White.

Holy Scripture: The Ground and Pillar of Our Faith (3 volumes) by William Webster.

The New Testament Documents: Are They Reliable by FF Bruce.

The Canon Revisited and The Canon Fodder by Michael J. Kruger

Evidence that Demand a Verdict and New Evidence that Demands a Verdict by Joshua McDowell. (personally recommend)
---john9346 on 1/8/17


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IMO Jesus did write the following the first time in the Pericope de Adultera, John 7:53-8:11.

O LORD, the hope of Israel, all that forsake Thee shall be ashamed, and they shall be written in the earth, because they have forsaken the LORD, the Fountain of Living Water.
Jeremiah 17:13
This is possibly what Jesus wrote in John 8:6
For Jesus refers to Himself and the Holy Spirit with a similar phrase in John 7:37-39 and was forsaken by thee leaders.

So that the 2nd time we see Jesus writing each person name. John 8:8

But other than that Jesus just spoke thee Words the NT writers confirmed them with their Books. Hebrews 2:3-4
---Jamea7799 on 1/8/17


Revelation 22:7 BEHOLD I come quickly: Blessed he that keepeth the saying of this Book,
22:8 And I John saw these things , and heard them,when I had heard and seen, I fell down and worship before the feet of the angel, which showed me these things,
22:9 Then saith he unto me, see thou do it not: I am thy fellow servant and of them which keep the saying of this Book: worship God,
22,10 And he saith unto me , Seal not the saying of the prophecy of this Book, for the time is at hand ,

( Word of God or Word of Man ? )
---RichardC on 1/6/17


Revelation 22:18 FOR I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this Book If any man shall add unto the these things , God shall add unto him the plaques that are written in this Book:

22:19 And if any man shall take away from the from the words of this Book of this prophecy God shall take away his part out of the Book of life, and out of the Holy city , and from the things which are written in this Book

22:20 He which testified these things saith Surely I come quickly, Amen Even so , come, Lord Jesus.

Question - Who testified here ?

2 Timothy 3:16
---RichardC on 1/6/17


//
It is an abomination and very offensive for Catholics to say they are the Church, and Christian, when they are full of PAGANISM and IDOLATRY.
---Rob on 1/6/17//

Please give one example of paganism.

Christ is baptized! In the Jordan!
---Cluny on 1/6/17


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Rob:

You wrote: It is an abomination and very offensive for Catholics to say they are the Church, and Christian, when they are full of PAGANISM and IDOLATRY.

I think that if you examine all Christian groups carefully, you will find a bit of those everywhere. What matters is not that they exist (because they do), but how much influence they have. We already see pagan idolatrous influence in names of some Old Testament figures (Esther and Mordecai), and New Testament ones (Apollos), and in the names of our calendar days and months, but what REALLY matters is, how much do pagan influences detract from our worship of God?
---StrongAxe on 1/6/17


It is an abomination and very offensive for Catholics to say they are the Church, and Christian, when they are full of PAGANISM and IDOLATRY.
---Rob on 1/6/17


Nicole states, "Sir, since the Catholic Church can trace Pope Francis back to Peter with the keys to Heaven/earth, yes She is the Leadership set up by Jesus."

But there is no evidence that this can be done for example, there were many popes through out history, and don't forget the Donation of Constantine.

Also, not all the church fathers believed Matt 16:18 was speaking of just 1 man.
---john9346 on 1/5/17


Nicole_Lacey:

You wrote: Sir, since the Catholic Church can trace Pope Francis back to Peter with the keys to Heaven/earth, yes She is the Leadership set up by Jesus.

The Catholics claim legitimacy via an unbroken line of Apostolic Succession from Peter. However, the Orthodox also claim the same thing. I believe that even the Anglican church can also claim that. So can many Catholic splinter groups. What objective criteria can you use that can unambiguously say that one is right and the others are wrong?
---StrongAxe on 1/5/17


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//Ma'am, this wasn't the rcc, Eastern Orthodox, coptic, Melkite, American catholic, etc.---john9346 on 1/4/17

Sir, since the Catholic Church can trace Pope Francis back to Peter with the keys to Heaven/earth, yes She is the Leadership set up by Jesus.
---Nicole_Lacey on 1/5/17


nicole states, "But remember you know we know and believe that Jesus started the Church's Leadership before His death."

Ma'am, this wasn't the rcc, Eastern Orthodox, coptic, Melkite, American catholic, etc.
---john9346 on 1/4/17


//this is during the time when the rcc and the eastern Orthodox Religion wasn't even thought of.---john9346 on 1/3/17

I can understand your thought process.

But remember you know we know and believe that Jesus started the Church's Leadership before His death.

The birth of the Church occurred 10 days after Jesus' Resurrection at Pentecost
---Nicole_Lacey on 1/4/17


Nicole,

Thanks and I agree but Luke is speaking inside of "Scripture." not Outside "Scripture." this is during the time when the rcc and the eastern Orthodox Religion wasn't even thought of.
---john9346 on 1/3/17


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//Nicole, show us all where did any church fathers (East and West) stated that they themselves wrote down what Jesus said? In other words, they created the bible.---john9346 on 1/3/17

Luke 1,1-4

Many have undertaken to draw up AN ACCOUNT of the things that have been fulfilled among us, just as they were HANDED DOWN TO US to us BY those who from the FIRST WERE EYEWITNESSES and servants of the WORD.

With this in mind, since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, I too decided to WRITE AN ORDERLY ACCOUNT FOR YOU, most excellent Theophilus, so that you may know the certainty of the things you have been taught.
---Nicole_Lacey on 1/3/17


Nicole states, "Jesus started a Church to PASS His Words to us." "It was the Leaders of the Church who decided to write everything down to help as many as possible to know Jesus is the Messiah."

Nicole, show us all where did any church fathers (East and West) stated that they themselves wrote down what Jesus said? In other words, they created the bible.
---john9346 on 1/3/17


john9346:

No, Jesus didn't write any of it. Yes, the evangelists QUOTED what he said, but they also quoted other people, and wrote other stuff that wasn't quoted.

If being quoted is the same as writing, as you claim, then parts of the New Testament were also written by Herod, Pilot, the Pharisees, and pagan Greek philosophers.

I am now quoting Jesus as having said, "I am the way, the truth and the light.". Does the fact that I have quoted Jesus make my post scripture?

"Theopneustos." meaning God-breathe.

God BREATHED, not God WRITTEN.
---StrongAxe on 1/3/17


No

Jesus knew many people wouldn't understand Him and He knew the majority wouldn't be able to read during His time and in the future.

Jesus started a Church to PASS His Words to us.

It was the Leaders of the Church who decided to write everything down to help as many as possible to know Jesus is the Messiah.

As Cluny said Jesus only wrote in dirt according to the Scriptures.

And the Scriptures DIDN'T even bother to tell us WHAT He wrote.
---Nicole_Lacey on 1/2/17


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Jesus was too busy setting an example of love (as in the verb form) to write anything. This is the reason he appointed witnesses - the apostles - to do the writing. It is written in the bible that other writings - letters and journals - were written that would fill a large library. Most of these other writings can be found in three of the largest libraries in eastern Europe.

Besides, the Romans and the Pharisees were very meticulous in keeping records of their daily life that even include interacting with Jesus.
---Steveng on 1/2/17


Michael4879:

"Did Jesus write any of the books in the New Testament?"

Yes.

"Did he write any of the New Testament?"

Yes.

"In the New Testament, we have words attributed to Jesus. Yet what did Jesus write?"

Sir, he wrote it all yes he used men such as Matthew, Mark, Luke John, etc.,however, they are his words. This is why Paul referring to "Scripture." in 2 Tim 3:16, stated that "Scripture." is, "Theopneustos." meaning God-breathe.
---john9346 on 1/2/17


Mike4879:

"All of the New Testament is quotes of the church fathers."

Sir, the church fathers never attested to this as being fact.

"But the only one scholars are sure about is Paul. More question marks are around the other sources."

All Scholars except Liberal Scholars verrify the authenticity of the authors of Scripture. Liberal Scholars deny anything that is Super Natural.

"Writing the gospels were after the disciples had died."

All the gospels were written long before 70 AD while the apostles and eyewitnesses were still alive.

The book of Revelation was written about 80or 90AD this was the last book.

---john9346 on 1/2/17


Jesus did not write anything in the New Testament. He chose 12 eyewitness disciples and taught them everything they needed to know. We have the writings of two of those eyewitnesses through whom God has preserved His Son's testimony to this very day.

This is what Jesus told His disciples "But the Comforter who is the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, He shall teach you all things and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you". John 14:26. And He also prayed to His Father "Neither pray I for these alone but for those also who shall believe on me through their word." John 17:20.
---barb on 1/2/17


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Jesus did not Author or write the NT. Yet, He is named the Word - Jn 1:1 because He is the God/human realization and personification of the Author's vision (Father's vision) - 2Tim 3:16.

The writers of the NT are:

Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John
Paul
Peter
James
John (same)
Jude
---aservant on 1/2/17


Jesus wrote in hearts, by means of the Holy Spirit >

"He through the Holy Spirit had given commandments to the apostles whom He had chosen" (in Acts 1:2)

And about His chosen ones, we have >

"Then He appointed twelve, that they might be with Him and that He might send them out to preach," (Mark 3:14)

I see, through this, that Jesus first desired to have His apostles be with Him, in personal sharing so they could know how He is in love and therefore what He means by all He has said. This example needed to be in their hearts (c:
---Bill on 1/2/17


The only thing Jesus wrote that's recorded in the NI is His his doodles in the dust of the Temple in John 8.

And exactly WHAT He wrote is not given.

Happy New Year!
---cluny on 1/2/17


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