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Explain Words In A Baptism

If jesus told his disciples to do what he said in Matthew 28:19 why did his disciples in the book of acts baptize in the name of jesus in chapter 2:38 when peter was speaking and in chapter 8 when simon the scorcer and many other places?

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 ---derrick on 9/26/05
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Mark 16 v 16, Acts 2 v's 37 - 41 Fulfills Matt.28 v's 19 - 20.

There's No one found in the N - Testament scriptures of being baptized in the titles Father - Son & Holy spirit, this Is mans doing, Not God.

They all were baptized in The name of The Lord & The name of The Lord Is, Jesus Christ.
---Lawrence on 7/24/10

To make it essential to use a specific formula in baptism is to raise the baptism to the place of ritual or ceremony or sacrament making it something that it is not. That fits the baptismal regeneration theology of some groups but not fit with scripture.
---Bruce5656 on 11/4/07

The references in Acts aren't contradictions to the one in Matthew. It emphasizes the distinctive quality of this baptism, because Jesus is included now in a way that He wasn't in John's baptism. Forgiveness comes through that which is symboized by baptism. Two gifts are now given, forgiveness of sins, and the Holy Spirit.
---Melissa on 3/19/07

The baptism in the name of Jesus was for the Jews for the remission of sins. In Acts 2:36-38 you will notice that it was Jews who Peter was talking to about repentance and Christ crucified. Yes, we are all to blame, but in this context he was talking to Jews.
---Rickey on 12/15/05

Jesus, God in the flesh, offered Himself a sacrifice for us. In human form He took our sins, then as human in God form became mediator between man & God. Jesus gave the commandment to his disciples who knew who He was. They then baptized in the name of the only one who could be God, die as a man, and take life back again as only God could, Jesus the Christ. Only God could save us, not a son or a lesser sacrifice. The Jews proved that for 4000 years of sacrifices before God walked the earth as Emmanuel.
---mike_fl on 10/14/05

Mod: I just respond to the appropriate question in that same Blog, pertinant to the question. So I cannot understand the mixup from my viewpoint.Sorry,Is there any other way of responding or do we have to tabulate the question all over again Please advise.It is assumed that each reply is cognisant with the blog & question.

Moderator - Because there are so many comments in a blog it is necessary to make it clear what you are responding to as well as clearly addressing a question. Always please make sure to answer people's questions before just restating a position. Thanks.
---Emcee on 10/7/05

Alan Of Uk & Mod: I detest conflicts & arguementation as it is unchristian like as an RC I follow my Beliefs but for your edification & in answer to your query, of 27/9 which I am sure you are well versed in Please Read,Acts ch2; v37-39on the subject of Baptism & the holy spirit s gifts& forgiveness of sins.

Moderator - Please don't feel any conflicts from here :) We just need the information because most people are reading these and not interacting and really don't understand the issues. That aside, could you please write the question out that you are answering. Thanks.
---Emcee on 9/30/05

Paul writing to Gentiles, writes in 1 Corinthians 1:17, For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect. Different time, different program.
---geraa7578 on 9/30/05

When Jesus gave the trinity, in the name of "THE" Son, it's understood to be Jesus. If he would've said, Baptize them in the name of "Jesus", then he would be beside himself when speaking. He could've also said, Baptize them in the name of "THE Son of man", and it still would have meant himself. When Peter used "Jesus Christ" that is all-inclusive of the trinity; for when you receive Jesus, you are also receiving the Father who sent him. Please read Colossians 2:9.
---Eloy on 9/30/05

Emcee ... When the Moderator saked you for scriptural back-up, by saying "Moderator you have greater access to the holy Bible than I have"
This seemed to say you did not have a Bible.
If you do have one, you could answer his request.
---alan8869_of_UK on 9/30/05

Alan of Uk:I studied the Bible & catechism at an early age I got distictions in Religious knowledge in Cambridge.I do not possess a KJV but do have a NRSV Cathoic edition from the Douay version.This meets my needs & I have an excellent memory by the grace of almighty God. English History was also a requirement in my curriculum.At 4 score I continue to educate myself .
---Emcee on 9/29/05

Brother Bruce, what you put down was excellent. you have explained it very well. I believe it is a great teaching on Baptism. Thank you so much for it.
---Lupe2618 on 9/29/05

Emcee ... from some of you other blogs, you appear to have great access to the words of early personages and committees of the Roman Catholic Church.
How come you do not have access to a Bible?
---alan8869_of_UK on 9/28/05

Moderator you have greater access to the holy Bible than I have.

Moderator - Where are you located and we can have one sent? Also, you can go to Bible online search sites.
---Emcee on 9/28/05

Bruce : you say that Baptism is a declaration of allegiance.I would infer that this is not so, in the new covenant it is an initiation into christianity.what you say is true, baptism was a cleansing of the body & its relevant parts as a form of tradition in the OT. But Baptism today is a RITE & an initiation where we receive the Holy Spirit to strengthen us in our quest to find the truth.

Moderator - Please show the scriptures that say today we receive the Holy Spirit through baptism?
---Emcee on 9/27/05


This is an extensive study that space here simply does not allow for. Here are some points to consider:

Obedience: Matthew 28:19, "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:" This is the command. It is a given that if Jesus told them to go baptize he expects us to (obediently) submit to baptism.
---Bruce5656 on 9/27/05

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Baptism did not originate with the Christian faith. Nor did it originate with John. Baptism was a long established Jewish tradition called mikveh. Having researched the significance of baptism to the Jew, I agree with Rabbi Halls statement: The act of washing body, hands or feet, ceremonially, demonstrates the state of the person spiritually. This is confirmed over and over in Jewish literature.
---Bruce5656 on 9/27/05

This ritual demonstrates the willingness of the convert to forsake his Gentile background and assume his Jewish identity by taking on the status of one who keeps the commandments. Ron Moseley THE JEWISH BACKGROUND OF CHRISTIAN BAPTISM.
In order to convert to Judaism, the gentile had to be circumcised, eat a covenant meal, the agreement to obey Jewish law, and submit to a ritual bath (mikveh).
---Bruce5656 on 9/27/05

If you really want to seek truth in this matter, research Jewish baptism. If you wish to write me, I would be glad to provide you with extensive articles that demonstrate these facts.
This is the background from which the 1st century church came. Baptism was a common initiatory rite not only for Jews but other groups as well and, I am told, even political parties. It was a used as a public declaration of allegiance.
---Bruce5656 on 9/27/05

Christian baptism is just that, a public declaration of allegiance. Even Johns baptism was a baptism of promise. Those being baptized were saying I will repent of my sin and when the messiah comes, I will follow him. Acts 19:4 Similarly, Christian baptism is a baptism of commitment and obedience.
---Bruce5656 on 9/27/05

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It also serves as an object lesson that demonstrates what took place invisibly at conversion. A described in Romans 6, when we became a Christian, we were baptized into (literally; placed into) the death burial and resurrection of Jesus. Note that the meaning of the Greek word Baptizo, translated baptized, is to immerse or place within. So Paul is simply saying that we have been put in Him therefore, we have died, been buried and resurrected with Christ in His sacrifice.
---Bruce5656 on 9/27/05

People have the tendency to automatically assume water baptism when ever the word baptize is used in scripture. This is a mistake. As noted above the word simply means to immerse or place within. This is reflected in 1 Cor 12:13 where we are told that the Holy Spirit has placed us in (baptized us into) the body of Christ. When was the last time you saw the Holy Spirit baptize anyone in water?
---Bruce5656 on 9/27/05

This baptism or placing within is an invisible act of the Holy Spirit that takes place at conversion. So, water baptism serves as an object lesson. A physical representation of the invisible work of the Holy Spirit
If we bestow on the act of baptism some mysterious significance or make it a means of
---Bruce5656 on 9/27/05

Paul said: 1 Corinthians 1:17, "For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect." If we make baptism, or any other act a prerequisite for salvation, the cross of Christ should be made of none effect. In other wise Jesus died in vain if we can be saved by our own good actions or philosophies.
---Bruce5656 on 9/27/05

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Derrick :Performance of Baptism is an outward sign of inward grace.Invoking the Holy Trinity saying at he same time pouring or immersing in water,"I baptize (name of person)in the name of the father the son & the holy spirit"The inward grace is the receiving of the gifts of the holy spirit Faith Hope & Charity.Your reference in acts is to mass baptism done to a throng of 3000 people includind simon the magician who was also baptised .
---Emcee on 9/27/05

Bruce, please show me where scripture teaches us that baptism is merely a "public testimony" or an "outward sign of an inward work". Where does scripture teach that baptism is an "act of obedience"?
---Tina5349 on 9/26/05

Jesus was saying that only baptize in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost. Now Peter was telling everyone to be baptize in Jesus' name and they shall recieve the Holy Ghost. Meaning they will be baptized with the Holy Ghost. Luke 3:16. Peter did baptize them in Jesus' name but Jesus will baptize them with the Holy Ghost.
---Rebecca_D on 9/26/05

Would you please explain what you mean by this statement? "Forgiveness comes through that which is symboized by baptism. Two gifts are now given, forgiveness of sins, and the Holy Spirit."
---Tina5349 on 9/26/05

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It should be clear that there is no "formula" for baptism. Many groups/denominations make a big deal over the specific wording. What possible difference can it make? Baptism is but a public testimony/declaration of one's identification with the death /burial/resurrection of Jesus. An act of obedience. A pledge, if you will, that you will follow Him.

As for doing things in Jesus name:
---Bruce5656 on 9/26/05

"In the name of" is understood to be in the authority of as in: Stop "in the name of the law or in the name of the king.
Mark 9:39, "But Jesus saidno man which shall do a miracle in my name, can lightly speak evil of me."
John 14:13, "And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do
Mark 16:17, "In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;"
---Bruce5656 on 9/26/05

Or it could mean for the sake of, or because of: Matthew 18:5, "And whoso shall receive one such little child in my name receiveth me."
Mark 9:41, "For whosoever shall give you a cup of water to drink in my name
John 14:26, "the Comforterwhom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things
John 16:24, "Hitherto have ye asked nothing in my name: ask, and ye shall receive."
---Bruce5656 on 9/26/05

Many more examples could be cited.

Why should we understand a passage like Acts 2:38 any differently? We baptize someone in the name of i.e. by the authority of or for the sake of or because of our relationship with - Jesus. It is not about a formula. It is about authority and motive.
---Bruce5656 on 9/26/05

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