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Virgin Mary Speak In Tongues

Did the virgin Mary speak in tongues?

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 ---MIMA on 12/11/05
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Rebecca D, AMEN. That's good.The Bible always does mean what it says.If you seek it.
---donald on 1/3/08

Yes she did, along with 119 other people in the upper room. You can find that she was in the Upper room. It does not give all the 120 names but it does give some names. Acts 1:13-14 and in Acts chapter 2 was the day of Pentecost. And that was when they were baptized by the Holy Ghost and with tongues of fire.
---Rebecca_D on 12/3/07

Yet another resurrected blog, and this a second resurrection
A December 2005 blog dies, is resurrected in October 2006, dies again, and is again resurrected in December 2007!
---alan_of_UK on 12/3/07

actualy i dont know i would like to know and what scipture you used to out the answer. but i believe no because i believe god didnt give her that.
---edwin on 12/2/07

Alan of UK::Thanks for the clarification which I suspected Hope you are well as I am
---Emcee on 10/17/06

The pressing questions that are on the world's mind, really don't belong to a select few. Nor do the answers.
---Anonymous on 10/17/06

First, the virgin Mary is incorrect terminology, because after Jesus Mary had other children and she was married so was no longer a virgin. There is no such thing as a married virgin, and Mary was married to Joseph. Secondly, Mary was at the upper room prayer meeting in the Book of Acts awaiting the coming of the Holy Spirit on the day of Pentecost. Scripture says they "all spoke with other tongues as the Spirit gave them utterance" (Acts 2:4). Yes, Mary spoke in tongues.
---Helen_5378 on 10/17/06

Kay - When one is baptised in the Holy Spirit one does then speak in tongues. This is totally different from the tongues that are spoken and interpreted in church.
---Helen_5378 on 10/17/06

Emcee ... my last comment on here was last December!
What seems to be happening now is that we have a lot of new bloggers, who are going back to past blog subjects, and finding them of interest, reopen the blog. There's nothing wrong in that, except it makes us rather wrack our memories as to what we said nearly a year ago ... and why!
I don't think there is anything sinister in it.
---alan8869_of_UK on 10/16/06

Alan of UK::What amazes me that old items are being rehashed like old laundry.Who is the decision maker to resurrect old subjects or is it for want of something to do.Maybe you would like to comment.
---Emcee on 10/16/06

"The promise was to her and us alike. Why shouldn't she have spoken in tongues if the promise was to her?"

First, why would Mary need to speak in tongues? Was she a foreign missionary?
Second, the ability to speak in tongues is not a promise that has been made for every believer. The gift of tongues is given to some believers..not all believers.
---Kay on 10/16/06

Emcee ... I was just pointing out that the question implied that Mary was still a virgin when she spoke in tongues (if indeed she did) As you say, she was not. I have nothing against women speaking in you feel I should oppose it?
---alan8869_of_UK on 12/13/05

Alan::Mary the Mother of Jesus was a declared Virgin at the birth of Christ. Pentecost came 33years later & we know she had several children.Her speaking in tounges has nothing to do with her status as already declared, so why the single significance. If she indeed spoke in tongues; dont some women speak in tongues today is their personal status called to answer the similar question.Its strange you defend what some see as inappropriate.
---Emcee on 12/12/05

Joel 2 and Acts 2 both state that the promise is given to everyone. So it doesn't matter if Mary was in the upper room or not. The promise was to her and us alike. Why shouldn't she have spoken in tongues if the promise was to her?
---john on 12/12/05

Alan, you make a good point. When the day of Penticost came, Mary was not longer a virgin. Many RC call her "the virgin Mary." Mary probably did speak in tongues, but by that time she had other children.
---Ulrika on 12/12/05

Acts 1:13,14 \ 2:1-4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.
---Ulrika on 12/12/05

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Emcee ... William was not out of order. If you read the question, it asks whether the virgin Mary spoke in tongues. He is saying that if Mary spoke in tongues, she was not a virgin when she did so. The question went that little bit further than asking if Mary the mother of Jesus spoke in tongues.
---alan8869_of_UK on 12/12/05

Mary was a virgin when she gave birth to Jesus. That is foundational to Christ being the Son of God. She did not however remain a virgin since she became the mother of several other children. Whether she spoke in other languages is immaterial. It's at God's option. HE gives gifts as he wills. Mary was obedient...AM I? ARE YOU?
---truth_seeker on 12/12/05

William ::You are out of step & out of tune we are not talking about your statement read the question don't be a bloggerhead-confusing the issue.
---Emcee on 12/12/05

Read ;Acts 2:1-4;Acts 2:4 --they were all filled with the Holy Ghost and began to speak with other tongues-.Acts 1:14- had already said there were women rhere including -Mary the Mother of Jesus.If one accepts that Mary was there, then according to the Word, one can't deny she spoke in tongues because it says "all" spoke with other tongues.Based on the Word of God I must say "yes" Mary did,but wasn't a virgin.After a woman gives birth she can't be a virgin.
---Darlene_1 on 12/12/05

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You really have to identify what blocks of scripture belong together, Acts 1:12-14 are referring to returning to the upper room after the ascension. Acts 1:15-26 refer to intervening events on subsequent days. Pentecost is not discussed until Acts 2, to imply that Mary the mother of Jesus was even in the upper room on the day of Pentecost is dubious speculation. Mary is pretty much inconsequential now; Luke is still using multi-hand hearsay accounts at this point.
---Phil_the_Elder on 12/12/05

you are all right, but you falter in this: she wasnt a virgin. when she gave birth, she was no more a virgin. she also gave birth to 4 other boys and daughters, meaning she had at least 7 children. she might have had more daughters too, but the scriptures do not tell. and she had a husband too. on all counts she couldnt be virgin, friends
---william on 12/12/05

The gift of the holy spirit at Pentecost gave the apostles the ability to speak in tongues for purposes of spreading the Gospel But does not say that Mary the Mother of Jesus who was also present spoke in tongues although she was there so any statement would be an assumption.
---Emcee on 12/12/05

If you will read in Acts 1:13-15. Mary was in the upper room in one accord.
---Rebecca_D on 12/11/05

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I say that she did because she was one of those whom was in the upper room. 120 in all. If I'm not mistaken.
---Rebecca_D on 12/11/05

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