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Dinosaurs Tearing Teeth
  
Kath, you write the strangest things. You claimed I had said the curse brought death when I had said Adam' sin was the cause. Sin is the cause, the curse (inc. death)is its result.

You had claimed the curse was unbiblical. I showed you it is not but as usual you acknowledge nothing, simply move to your next point. Not one of your ideas has proven to be true by Scripture.

Then, despite proving my case by Scripture you have the temerity to say: ".you are free to believe as you will, according to your own understanding" as though the many Scriptures I have given are constructs of my imagination! Jesus says He is coming to be with man. Is He, yes or no?


Finish It Here April 2015
  
Kath you ask "And why do you think Jesus suffering automatically means that sin was possible?" Already asked and answered.


Was Paul A Jew
  
Trav, are saying when the Greek 'Ioudaios' i.e 'Jews' is used it refers only the tribe of Judah?

1 Corinthians 1:23,24 "but we preach Christ crucified, a stumbling block to Jews and folly to Gentiles, but to those who are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God."

If you say 'Ioudaios' means only those of Judah then Christ was a "stumbling block" to only the tribe of Judah, and only those of the tribe of Judah were called by God.

See also Romans 3:29 "Or is God the God of Jews only? Is he not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also." Surely Jews here means those of the Jewish faith, not just those of Judah? Note He is God of the Gentiles also!


Was Paul A Jew
  
Trav, again, in Esther 2:5 Mordecai was called both Jew and Benjaminite, not Judean. Is Scripture wrong?

And as I showed from Scripture in Mark 15:2 Pilate called Jesus a Jew and He agreed.
And in John 4:9 the Samaritan woman called Jesus a Jew.
And in John 4:22 Jesus says salvation is from the Jews.
From all three witnesses the Greek is 'Ioudaios' i.e. Jews.

This shows that those of the Jewish faith were then, as they are today, called Jews.

As for Hebrews 8::8 of course there were the two houses of Israel and of Judah, but the citizens of both are also called Jews in Scripture, see above for example.


Finish It Here April 2015
  
Kath, again I ask you to answer my questions. When you do so I will be happy to continue this fascinating dialogue.

Who was born of Mary? Was it eternal God who is Spirit, not flesh. Or was it Man who is flesh?

Why do you think Jesus was called both Son of God (therefore God) and Son of Man (therefore man)?

Hebrews 2:18 "For because he himself has suffered when tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted."

If Jesus could not sin, as you claim, why then did He suffer when being tempted?

BTW where have I said "the ONLY DIFFERENCE, Between Adam and Jesus was that Adam sinned and Jesus did not?"


Dinosaurs Tearing Teeth
  
Kath, regarding "When Jesus returns to be with man" read Revelation ch.21:3 "Behold, the dwelling place of God is with man. He will dwell with them, and God himself will be with them as their God." And 22:12 Jesus says "Behold, I am coming soon, bringing my recompense with me, to repay each one for what he has done."

Regarding the curse on the 13th I wrote to you saying in the OT the word used for the 'curse', the result of Adam's sin not Satan's, is 'arar.' See Genesis 3:14,17, 4:11, 5:29, and 9:25. This curse brought death, disease and suffering into the world and affected the whole of creation as Romans 8:22 shows. That is sin brought the curse which was death, disease etc.


Finish It Here April 2015
  
Kath, no matter what you write I do respond to topics raised and do answer questions. You don't as the record shows.

Please re-ask any question of yours which you say I have not answered and I will answer.

Now please answer mine:

Who was born of Mary? Was it eternal God who is Spirit, not flesh. Or was it Man who is flesh?

Why do you think Jesus was called both Son of God (therefore God) and Son of Man (therefore man)?

Hebrews 2:18 "For because he himself has suffered when tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted."

If Jesus could not sin, as you claim, why then did He suffer when being tempted?


Dinosaurs Tearing Teeth
  
Kath in the OT the word used for the 'curse', the result of Adam's (note Adam's sin not Satan's as he is not the sinner but the tempter) is 'arar.' See Genesis 3:14,17, 4:11, 5:29, and 9:25. This curse brought death, disease and suffering into the world and affected the whole of creation as Romans 8:22 shows. When Jesus returns to be with man there will be no more curse, therefore no more death, disease and suffering. See Revelation 21:4, and 22:3.

Therefore contrary to what you say 'curse' is the correct Biblical word.

God had a temper tantrum after Adam sinned!!! Never heard of that!


Finish It Here April 2015
  
Kath, your style is to be evasive. Quite common here. You fail to answer questions, ignore Scriptures quoted and roll on to what you think is your next good point.

Again I ask:

Who was born of Mary? Was it eternal God who is Spirit, not flesh. Or was it Man who is flesh?

Why do you think Jesus was called both Son of God (therefore God) and Son of Man (therefore man)?

Hebrews 2:18 "For because he himself has suffered when tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted."

If Jesus could not sin, as you claim, why then did He suffer when being tempted?


Was Paul A Jew
  
Trav, Esther 2:5: ".there was a Jew in Susa the citadel whose name was Mordecai, the son of Jair, son of Shimei, son of Kish, a Benjaminite," Mordecai was obviously not of the tribe of Judah but called a Jew. Why? Gill explains "Now in Shushan the palace was a certain Jew,.... Not one of the tribe of Judah, for he was afterwards called a Benjaminite, but was so called, because he was of the kingdom of Judah, which consisted of both tribes. Jarchi says, all that were carried captive with the kings of Judah were called Jews among the nations, though of another tribe:" Holman agrees.

The question for you is: Does Esther 2:5 call Mordecai a Jew- Yes or no?


Dinosaurs Tearing Teeth
  
Kath the curse was instituted by God, because of Adam's sin. Romans 6:23 "the wages of sin is death," Death is the payment for Adam's sin -Romans 5:12, 17. When Jesus returns-no more curse Revelation 22:3: no more death, mourning, crying or pain 21:4. Yet you claim there was no curse upon man! Do you say death was not part of the curse!

Scripture says Satan was the tempter, but the sin was Adam's.

As anyone can see I respond to those who contradict Scripture. Stop contradicting Scripture and I will ignore you!

I believe that what you call the YEC position is that which best fits with Scripture. However where have I said those who disagree are not saved?


Was Paul A Jew
  
Trav, incorrect-'Jew' comes from Greek 'Ioudaios' which was in use to describe the inhabitants of Israel long before NT times. That it was still in use in NT times is proved by the three witnesses I gave.

Mark 15:2 'And Pilate asked him, "Are you the King of the Jews?" (i.e. Greek Ioudaios) And he answered him, "You have said so" i.e. yes.

John 4:9 "How is it that you, (Jesus) a Jew, (Ioudaios) ask for a drink from me, a woman of Samaria?"

John 4:22 Jesus says "for salvation is from the Jews" again 'Ioudaios'

So the Israelites were corporately called 'Jews', as we still do today. Or do you claim 'Ioudaios' is not Greek for Jew? If so on what authority?


Finish It Here April 2015
  
Kath let me ask you two pertinent questions:

Who was born of Mary? Was it eternal God who is Spirit, not flesh. Or was it Man who is flesh?

Why do you think Jesus was called both Son of God (therefore God) and Son of Man (therefore man)?


Finish It Here April 2015
  
Cluny, please do not hold back, just tell me what I am!


Finish It Here April 2015
  
Kath, Jesus the man was capable of sin, as Scripture shows (read it again) because it says He resisted temptation. If He was incapable of sin, sin would therefore be no temptation to him, but Ephesians 2:18 says He suffered when tempted. Therefore He could sin, but didn't. Once again if this is not so Paul has written falsehood. Has he?

Of course Jesus did not have a sin nature, and I explained why yesterday. It appears you don't read, or understand what I have written. Maybe I am just too spiritually deep for you?

1 John 2:1 shows that those born of God can sin. If they can't as you claim then John has written a falsehood. Has he?

Did I say Jesus was born of God, as we are?


Dinosaurs Tearing Teeth
  
Kath, plants were food for man and animals from the beginning so they must die.

There are many views but others (not YEC) require the massaging or rejection of Scripture to make it fit with ever-changing secular views.

How do you know what has caused the damage upon the moon?

I never said animals were under the curse of the law. I just said that Scripture says that the consequences of Adam's sin has had severe consequences for all Creation-Romans 8:22. Consider how the world was destroyed and all creatures (except those on the ark) because of man's sin.

How do I use 'curse' flippantly? Remember when you said there was no curse? You had apparently never read Revelation 22:3.


Finish It Here April 2015
  
Kath you quoted 1 John 3:9 KJV "Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin,. and he cannot sin, because he is born of God." This does appear to say they cannot sin, as you say.

Unless John contradicted himself you have a problem because 1 John 2:1 makes it clear that those born of God can sin. The answer lies in the underlying Greek of 1 John 3:9 which says those born of God do not continue to practice sin.

So there is no contradiction as John wants that we would not sin as a practice (as we did before salvation) but that if we do slip and sin we have an advocate in Jesus Christ! And praise God for that.


Finish It Here April 2015
  
Kath, like StrongAxe you attempt to avoid answering any question which challenges your nonBiblical beliefs.

You say God had not worked since finishing Creation. But He obviously has. Otherwise who brought the plagues upon the Egyptians? Who killed the firstborn male of man and animals? Who created the manna for them to eat in the desert? Who destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah?

That you will not answer this shows you have no answer which doesn't destroy your fable.

Don't worry about my Spiritual discernment it works fine. I have easily discerned what you are!


Dinosaurs Tearing Teeth
  
Romans 8:22 'For we know that the whole creation has been groaning together in the pains of childbirth until now." Adam's sin brought the curse upon everything in creation.

Because of man's sin "He blotted out every living thing that was on the face of the ground, man and animals and creeping things and birds of the heavens. They were blotted out from the earth. Only Noah was left, and those who were with him in the ark" Genesis 7:23.

"the wages of sin is death,..." Romans 6:23 and this death includes man and all other things created.

Death of man and all things created is the result of man's sin. And this death obviously did not occur before sin.



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